What does full knowledge mean for mortal sin?

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what does the “full knowledge” part of the 3 parts of a mortal sin mean? Does it mean that one msu have “full knowledge” that the sin is mortal, or simply that it is a sin? Or does it mean full knowledge that it’s a “big” sin?

I’d appreciate documentation, if possible.

Thanks!
 
newadvent.org/cathen/14004b.htm#III

Hey, check out the above article on Sin down the page in the Mortal sin category as well as the Imputability. “The intellect must perceive and judge of the morality of the act, and the will must freely elect. For a deliberate mortal sin there must be full advertence on the part of the intellect and full consent on the part of the will in a grave matter.” Hope this helps. If not, repost, and I will dig deeper into the question. Thanks and God Bless.
 
When Christ said, “forgive them, Father, for they know not what they do,” then He must not have been talking about mortal sins, right? Therefore nailing Him to the cross, beating Him, and everything must have been venial sins, because they were done without full knowledge. Either that or Christ did not really save all the souls except Judas?

Did Christ forgive Judas by these words? I’m guessing, “no” but I cannot know for sure.

Alan
 
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UKcatholicGuy:
what does the “full knowledge” part of the 3 parts of a mortal sin mean? Does it mean that one msu have “full knowledge” that the sin is mortal, or simply that it is a sin? Or does it mean full knowledge that it’s a “big” sin?
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The CCC states:
“[Mortal sin] presupposes knowledge of the sinful character of the act, of its opposition to God’s law (CCC 1859).”

Based on this, I think “full knowledge” means that you know that the act bears the character of “sinful”, i.e., that it is opposed to God’s law. Therefore, I do not think that someone needs to know that the sin is grave, but just that is contravenes God’s law. I am open to being corrected, though.
 
Thanks everyone!

After reading the Catechism’s definition and the linked New Advent article, I agree with slinky and JH that “full knowledge” simply means that an act is sinful, not that it’s a mortal sin.

Thanks and God bless!
 
I would guess no too…since Jesus said it would be better for him if he was never born…that sounds pretty damning…I know it is something I hope our Lord would not say about me.
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AlanFromWichita:
Did Christ forgive Judas by these words? I’m guessing, “no” but I cannot know for sure.

Alan
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AlanFromWichita:
When Christ said, “forgive them, Father, for they know not what they do,” then He must not have been talking about mortal sins, right? Therefore nailing Him to the cross, beating Him, and everything must have been venial sins, because they were done without full knowledge. Either that or Christ did not really save all the souls except Judas?
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While they may not have realized that they were nailing God to the cross, they still understood that they released a known murderer and demanded the death of an innocent man in exchange. It’s hard to imagine that those acts were only venial.
 
Let’s see,
Didn’t Jesus also say that:

John19:11 Jesus answered, Thou couldest have no power at all against me, except it were given thee from above: therefore he that delivered me unto thee hath the greater sin.
John19:12 And from thenceforth Pilate sought to release him: but the Jews cried out, saying, If thou let this man go, thou art not Caesar’s friend: whosoever maketh himself a king speaketh against Caesar.

Hmmm,

From the cross Jesus asks forgiveness on behalf of those who do not know what they are doing.

It doesn’t mean Jesus is forgiving carte blanc, but that a particular group is being forgiven – those who do not have sufficient knowledge of their part in the crucifixion. It would also seem reasonable that the forgiveness is the granting of the possibilty (not the act itself) to become ratified upon repentance – which would happen for many at Pentecost when they realized what they did. The hideousness of directly putting Jesus, the actual son of God, to death is such that one might suppose it unforgivable altogether – Jesus is crying out to the father for pity.

It does appear that many people (the crowd) were involved without full knowledge of the error in their judgement. e.g. They did not know Jesus was innocent since their leaders stirred them up with charges against him. It is even possible that Caiphas really believed that Jesus was blaspheming. However, the problem is that envy was an alternate motive for the crucifixion before the erroneous belief of “blaphemy” came into play.

There were people, although I can’t judge (obviously) an individual case, who willed Jesus evil simply because he was Good. That is mortal sin in the crucifixion of Jesus.

And I think Petra is basically right, there were people who did not believe the charges but had a part in his crucifixion.
 
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