What does 'indult' mean?

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Elzee

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What does ‘indult’ mean? Does it mean ‘something approved by the Bishop’ (like an ‘indult TLM’ - can there be other types of ‘indults’?).

I’m hope I’m phrasing this correctly since I’m not sure what the word means). Thank you!
 
Well, I guess I’m still confused. What is an ‘indult Mass’ then? I thought this referred to the TLM, and that the Bishop of the diocese (not the Pope) had the authority to grant the permission to celebrate the TLM - making it an ‘indult’ Mass? What other types of ‘indults’ are there?

And, since you brought up ‘common law’ what is the ‘common law’ of the church (is this teh same as Canon Law?).
 
catholic.com/thisrock/1997/9706drag.asp

Archbishop Rembert Weakland of Milwaukee disagrees with Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger’s opinion that Pope Paul VI caused “extremely serious damage” by his reform of the liturgy. The real damage was done, says the Archbishop, by the Pope John Paul II’s grant of the indult to allow the Tridentine rite, not by Pope Paul VI’s decision to suppress it.

 
indult

(Latin: indultus, leave, permission)

A temporary or personal favor granted by the competent ecclesiastical authority. If not revoked and still in use they are not abolished by the Code of Canon Law. Thus bishops in the United States received induIts for fast and feast days. Being given for a certain time, however, they must be renewed. A personal indult is that of having a private oratory, or of saying Mass in a sitting position.

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The indult for the Tridentine Mas was granted in October, 1984 by His Holiness Pope John Paul II, in the document *Quattuor Abninc Annos. *This indult permitted the celebration of Mass according to the 1962 edition of the missal of St. Pius V, which was promulgated in 1570, after the Council of Trent. The indult stated that such celebrations could be held where the local ordinary, i.e., the bishop, permitted them. Thus, the indult was given by the Holy See, but its application is made at the discretion of the ordinary.

Few bishops responded affirmatively to this indult, enough so that the papal motu proprio announcing the Lefebvre excommunication in 1988 called for “a wide and generous application” of the 1984 indult. To this end, a ponftifical commission was formed to oversee matters pertaining to the indult. The commission, which still functions today, takes its name from that 1988 document that provided for the expanded use of the indult, Ecclesia Dei.
 
catholic.com/thisrock/1997/9706drag.asp

Archbishop Rembert Weakland of Milwaukee disagrees with Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger’s opinion that Pope Paul VI caused “extremely serious damage” by his reform of the liturgy. The real damage was done, says the Archbishop, by the Pope John Paul II’s grant of the indult to allow the Tridentine rite, not by Pope Paul VI’s decision to suppress it.

http://jeannero.free.fr/dessins-animes-2/SpaceGhost.gif
We all know what happened to Weakland. So much for his worthiness of his opinion on church decisions.
 
What does ‘indult’ mean? Does it mean ‘something approved by the Bishop’ (like an ‘indult TLM’ - can there be other types of ‘indults’?).

I’m hope I’m phrasing this correctly since I’m not sure what the word means). Thank you!
Once another Church law is in place for a matter, the indult is not longer in effect. So the indult for the 1962 Mass has expired. It is now the extraordinary form of the Mass.

Moto Proprio in 2007: sanctamissa.org/en/resources/summorum-pontificum.html
Art 1. The Roman Missal promulgated by Paul VI is the ordinary expression of the “Lex orandi” (Law of prayer) of the Catholic Church of the Latin rite. Nonetheless, the Roman Missal promulgated by St. Pius V and reissued by Bl. John XXIII is to be considered as an extraordinary expression of that same ‘Lex orandi,’ and must be given due honour for its venerable and ancient usage. These two expressions of the Church’s Lex orandi will in no any way lead to a division in the Church’s “Lex credendi” (Law of belief). They are, in fact two usages of the one Roman rite.
It is, therefore, permissible to celebrate the Sacrifice of the Mass following the typical edition of the Roman Missal promulgated by Bl. John XXIII in 1962 and never abrogated, as an extraordinary form of the Liturgy of the Church. The conditions for the use of this Missal as laid down by earlier documents “Quattuor abhinc annos” and “Ecclesia Dei”, are substituted as follows[1]
 
We all know what happened to Weakland. So much for his worthiness of his opinion on church decisions.
Was there really a need to resurrect a six-year-old thread purely for the sake of committing so gross a logical fallacy?
 
Was there really a need to resurrect a six-year-old thread purely for the sake of committing so gross a logical fallacy?
You would be surprised if you knew how many Catholics and non-Catholics who visit Catholic blogs are completely unaware that Weakland is no longer a priest in good standing, and can no longer speak for the church on its behalf.
 
You would be surprised if you knew how many Catholics and non-Catholics who visit Catholic blogs are completely unaware that Weakland is no longer a priest in good standing, and can no longer speak for the church on its behalf.
A few thoughts here:
  1. Irrelevant, since at the time the article to which you were responding was written --1997 – he was Archbishop of Milwaukee.
  2. Aren’t we just so lucky to have you to point these things out for us?
  3. First, you said “We all know …” Now, you lament “how many Catholics … are completely unaware …” You don’t seem to know whether you’re on foot or on horseback.
  4. In case you didn’t know, “So-and-so is a bad guy, therefore his arguments can be disregarded” is the literal, dictionary definition of ad hominem.
 
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