M
mercygate
Guest
This should be a short thread.
How does the Islamic claim that the Jewish scriptures were “corrupted” square with the Dead Sea Scrolls, which pre-dated the Qu’ran by centuries, were untouched for nearly two thousand years, and show remarkably little deviation from the Jewish Scriptures as known from the Masoretic text?
How does the Islamic claim that the Jewish scriptures were “corrupted” square with the Dead Sea Scrolls, which pre-dated the Qu’ran by centuries, were untouched for nearly two thousand years, and show remarkably little deviation from the Jewish Scriptures as known from the Masoretic text?