C
catholic1seeks
Guest
Even though Genesis consists of a 6-day creation, its literary form allows to believe otherwise.
But what about in such cases as the following:
As he was passing through a field of grain on the sabbath, his disciples began to make a path while picking the heads of grain. At this the Pharisees said to him, "Look, why are they doing what is unlawful on the sabbath?"He said to them, “Have you never read what David did when he was in need and he and his companions were hungry? How he went into the house of God **when Abiathar was high priest **and ate the bread of offering that only the priests could lawfully eat, and shared it with his companions?” Then he said to them, “The sabbath was made for man, not man for the sabbath. That is why the Son of Man is lord even of the sabbath.” (Mark 2:23-28)
Abiathar was not the priest. According to 1 Sam, the priest who gave the bread to David was Ahimelech, father of Abiathar.
So Jesus must not have really said this. But if it’s not true, then to what degree** IS** the Bible inerrant/infallible? I once heard that the Bible is only totally truthful for the things pertaining to our salvation. But I’ve also heard the Bible cannot lie; the Holy Spirit guided the sacred writers and nothing was written down except for what God willed to be written.
CONFUSED
But what about in such cases as the following:
As he was passing through a field of grain on the sabbath, his disciples began to make a path while picking the heads of grain. At this the Pharisees said to him, "Look, why are they doing what is unlawful on the sabbath?"He said to them, “Have you never read what David did when he was in need and he and his companions were hungry? How he went into the house of God **when Abiathar was high priest **and ate the bread of offering that only the priests could lawfully eat, and shared it with his companions?” Then he said to them, “The sabbath was made for man, not man for the sabbath. That is why the Son of Man is lord even of the sabbath.” (Mark 2:23-28)
Abiathar was not the priest. According to 1 Sam, the priest who gave the bread to David was Ahimelech, father of Abiathar.
So Jesus must not have really said this. But if it’s not true, then to what degree** IS** the Bible inerrant/infallible? I once heard that the Bible is only totally truthful for the things pertaining to our salvation. But I’ve also heard the Bible cannot lie; the Holy Spirit guided the sacred writers and nothing was written down except for what God willed to be written.
CONFUSED