What does it mean if something is dogmatically binding?

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What does it mean that the ecumenical councils are dogmatically binding? I know that there are set dogmas. So what’s the difference between a dogma and a dogmatically binding council?
 
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What does it mean that the ecumenical councils are dogmatically binding? I know that there are set dogmas. So what’s the difference between a dogma and a dogmatically binding council?
Binding means it must be accepted: a divinely revealed truth proclaimed as such by the infallible teaching authority of the Church. See these canons (CIC):
Canon 750
§ 1. Those things are to be believed by divine and catholic faith which are contained in the word of God as it has been written or handed down by tradition, that is, in the single deposit of faith entrusted to the Church, and which are at the same time proposed as divinely revealed either by the solemn Magisterium of the Church, or by its ordinary and universal Magisterium, which in fact is manifested by the common adherence of Christ’s faithful under the guidance of the sacred Magisterium. All are therefore bound to avoid any contrary doctrines.

§ 2. Furthermore, each and everything set forth definitively by the Magisterium of the Church regarding teaching on faith and morals must be firmly accepted and held; namely, those things required for the holy keeping and faithful exposition of the deposit of faith; therefore, anyone who rejects propositions which are to be held definitively sets himself against the teaching of the Catholic Church.
 
Dogmas are truths revealed by God that must be believed with faith. The Church, as part of her teaching mission and to help maintain the unity of faith, can make a definitive judgment that the whole Church is bound to assent to as to whether a particular proposition is or is not such a revealed truth. Such judgments are often made by ecumenical Councils. But not all ecumenical Councils make such judgments.

Calling a Council “dogmatically binding” is a bit sloppy, because even for Councils that make such judgments, they often do other things as well. Rather, what we want to know is whether particular acts of particular Councils contain such definitive judgments that bind us to faith.

Of course, Councils can teach in less definitive ways, meant to help illuminate, explain, and apply the truth to specific circumstances. Such Councils still deserve the respect rightly due the Church’s teaching authority. They can also legislate, pass judicial sentences, etc.
 
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Canon 750
§ 1. Those things are to be believed by divine and catholic faith which are contained in the word of God as it has been written or handed down by tradition, that is, in the single deposit of faith entrusted to the Church, and which are at the same time proposed as divinely revealed either by the solemn Magisterium of the Church, or by its ordinary and universal Magisterium, which in fact is manifested by the common adherence of Christ’s faithful under the guidance of the sacred Magisterium. All are therefore bound to avoid any contrary doctrines.
Rather, what we want to know is whether particular acts of particular Councils contain such definitive judgments that bind us to faith.
My bold above: my question

for example

Today’s Mass 2nd Reading

Matthew 12:46-50
Jesus was speaking to the crowds when his mother and his brothers appeared; they were standing outside and were anxious to have a word with him. But to the man who told him this Jesus replied, ‘Who is my mother? Who are my brothers?’ And stretching out his hand towards his disciples he said, ‘Here are my mother and my brothers. Anyone who does the will of my Father in heaven, he is my brother and sister and mother.’

How do I --and I am asking as a lay person who has not learn much about the councils-- how do catholics should understand the teaching Jesus teach above, and unite it with the teaching of the magisterium that Mary is the mother of God?

In the above passage, it seems to me Jesus took opportunity to tell His people that His true family (including His mother) is not merely by natural bond, rather, by spiritual bond (those who do the will of His Father).

Do we who do the will of Godbe included in the motherhood of God too?

In this particular example, which one contain more definitive judgement and bind us to faith :
  1. Mary mother of God, more definitive & binding than Jesus teaching, Or
  2. Whoever do God’s will, is His Mother, is more definitive & binding than the above ?
 
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In the above passage, Jesus said anyone who believe Him is His mother, sister, brother.
Look at the entire section from Matthew 12 to see that Jesus says that his kin are those that do the will of my Father, that is in heaven. Nothing is there specifically about belief.
46 As he was yet speaking to the multitudes, behold his mother and his brethren stood without, seeking to speak to him. 47 And one said unto him: Behold thy mother and thy brethren stand without, seeking thee. 48 But he answering him that told him, said: Who is my mother, and who are my brethren? 49 And stretching forth his hand towards his disciples, he said: Behold my mother and my brethren. 50 For whosoever shall do the will of my Father, that is in heaven, he is my brother, and sister, and mother.
Compare to Luke 8
19 And his mother and brethren came unto him: and they could not come at him for the crowd. 20 And it was told him: Thy mother and thy brethren stand without, desiring to see thee. 21 Who answering, said to them: My mother and my brethren are they who hear the word of God and do it.
 
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Look at the entire section from Matthew 12 to see that Jesus says that his kin are those that do the will of my Father, that is in heaven. Nothing is there specifically about belief.
Oops, you are right.

So I edit my questions: same question

Do we who do the will of Godbe included in the motherhood of God too?

In this particular example, which one contain more definitive judgement and bind us to faith :
  1. Mary mother of God, more definitive & binding than Jesus teaching, Or
  2. Whoever do God’s will, is His Mother, is more definitive & binding than the above ?
 
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Vico:
Look at the entire section from Matthew 12 to see that Jesus says that his kin are those that do the will of my Father, that is in heaven. Nothing is there specifically about belief.
Oops, you are right.

So I edit my questions: same question

Do we who do the will of Godbe included in the motherhood of God too?

In this particular example, which one contain more definitive judgement and bind us to faith :
  1. Mary mother of God, more definitive & binding than Jesus teaching, Or
  2. Whoever do God’s will, is His Mother, is more definitive & binding than the above ?
His family were there asking to see him, so he used them as an example of his family (not specifically mother; this is more general).
 
The same type of manner of speaking is also used when someone asked Jesus “Who is my neighbor?” Jesus then tells the parable of the Good Samaritan.

Point being, I think your question is a non-starter. There is no conflict.

Aside from that, a better question may be something like: why was such a juxtaposition (if that’s the right word) made by Jesus? Did the kin of a first century Palestinian Jew receive some sort of privilege over everyone else?
 
The Parable of The Good Samaritan (Luke 10:25-37)

Luke 10
36 “Which of these three do you think was a neighbor to the man who fell into the hands of robbers?”
37 The expert in the law replied, “The one who had mercy on him.” Jesus told him, “Go and do likewise.”

The good samaritan was the one help the man who was attacked by robbers, while a priest and a levite passed by, but did not stop to help him.

The Priest & the Levite were supposedly righteous men by status. But the one helped the neighbour was a samaritan.

Likewise,

Jesus said, by doing the will of the Father, we can become His Family (God’s Family). Being the Mother of God, or the Brother of God, or the Sister of God is a calling for all of us. Because we as catholics, all are called to do God’s will. And whenever we do that, we are - just as much as Mary the Mother of God - we too, are the Family of God. The only difference is, Mary the mother to Him through flesh. Whereas we, are family to Him because we do the Father’s will.

Is the above bold correct according to binding dogma?
 
The only difference is, Mary the mother to Him through flesh. Whereas we, are family to Him because we do the Father’s will.
Mary said, “Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord. May it be done to me according to your word.”
The most perfect example of doing God’s will.
 
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francisca.chapter3:
The only difference is, Mary the mother to Him through flesh. Whereas we, are family to Him because we do the Father’s will.
Mary said, “Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord. May it be done to me according to your word.”
The most perfect example of doing God’s will.
Yes, that’s what I said. Whenever we do the will of the father, we - as Mary - are God’s family.
 
John 20

Jesus Appears to Mary Magdalene

11 Now Mary stood outside the tomb crying…
16 Jesus said to her, “Mary.”
She turned toward him and cried out in Aramaic, “Rabboni!” (which means “Teacher”).
17 Jesus said, “Do not hold on to me, for I have not yet ascended to the Father. Go instead to my brothers and tell them, ‘I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God.’

Jesus met Mary Magdalene in the Garden . He told her that God the Father is His God . This is Jesus humbling Himself, saying that he is truly a man (The New Adam), telling the transformed Mary Magdalene, that she has become the daughter of God. And that Jesus wanted her to tell this fact to her brothers (His diciples) that they too have become the children of God.
 
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John 11

Jesus Raises Lazarus From the Dead​

Jesus said to Martha, “Your brother will rise again.”

24 Martha answered, “I know he will rise again in the resurrection at the last day.”

25 Jesus said to her, “I am the resurrection and the life. The one who believes in me will live, even though they die; 26 and whoever lives by believing in me will never die. Do you believe this?”

27 “Yes, Lord,” she replied, “I believe that you are the Messiah, the Son of God, who is to come into the world.”


(Quote from Wikipedia Hypostatic Union , bold mine)

Throughout History

Council of Ephesus

Nestorius claimed that the term theotokos could not be used to describe Mary, the mother of Christ. Nestorius argued for two distinct persons of Christ, maintaining that God could not be born because the divine nature is unoriginate. Therefore, Nestorius believed that the man Jesus of Nazareth was born in union with, but separate from and not strictly identifiable with, the Logos of God


(End Quote)

The word Logos (The Word) is found in John 1:1

John 1 New International Version (NIV)

The Word Became Flesh

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was with God in the beginning. 3 Through him all things were made; without him nothing was made that has been made.

(Quote from Wikipedia Hypostatic Union, bold mine)

Council of Chalcedon


However, in Theodore’s time the word hypostasis could be used in a sense synonymous with ousia (which clearly means “essence” rather than “person”) as it had been used by Tatian and Origen. The Greek and Latin interpretations of Theodore’s Christology have come under scrutiny since the recovery of his Catechetical Orations in the Syriac language.

In 451, the Ecumenical Council of Chalcedon promulgated the Chalcedonian Definition


Oriental Orthodox rejection of Chalcedonian definition

The Oriental Orthodox Churches, having rejected the Chalcedonian Creed, were known as [Miaphysites](Miaphysitism - Wikipedia) because they maintain the Cyrilian definition that characterized the incarnate Son as having one nature. The Chalcedonian “in two natures” formula (based, at least partially, on Colossians 2:9) was seen as derived from and akin to a Nestorian Christology.[[12]](Hypostatic union - Wikipedia)

(End Quote)


Please read Above Wikipedia Miaphysitism:

Toward The Resolution of The Dispute
 
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