What does it mean to 'please' or 'offend' God?

  • Thread starter Thread starter Neithan
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I just read the second chapter of the book of Sirach, which I recommend to you, especially relevent to your question here.

Everything about pleasing or offending God seems to come from obeying His will or not obeying His will.

And, that defines what is right and wrong by what has been revealed or what we know through what the Church calls ‘natural law.’

In a talk recently on EWTN, Scott Hahn was talking about committing sin, and he pointed out that we do not “break” God’s laws, even when that is such a common expression. God’s law does not break, it’s still there. Rather, WE are broken by breaking the law and it is we who dissociate ourselves from God by our sins. I think that’s a handy, practical explanation.

Read chapter 2 of Sirach (again).
 
TO psalm90 do you have more about scott hahn show. i truly will like to listen to that.iam a catholic an i need a push to go to confession an i think that maybe scott hahn can help me. 😦 I promise, O blessed St. Jude, to be ever mindful of this great favor, to always honor you as my special and powerful patron, and to gratefully encourage devotion to you by publishing this request. Amen:)
 
thenobes said:
The amount of happiness that God has is good (eternal happiness). Short range happiness may not be good (eg getting drunk, taking drugs).

Jesus suffered on the Cross. Is suffering Good?

The answer is the amount that God considers good is Good.

Perfection may not reside in quantity, but quality.

peace
Steve
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If you’re positing that whatever God considers good is Good then you have a Euthyphro Dilemma.

Catholic dogma teaches that God is Good. Insofar as a thing is good, it is like God. Is there suffering in God? If there was, then it would make no sense to say there is no suffering in Heaven, as it would be lacking in something good.
 
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