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AnneTeresa
Guest
Does it mean that it’s always a sin? In theory it’s a son? Usually a sin, but under certain subjective circumstances, it may not be a sin?
It means it is always sinful objectively, that is, looked at outside specific individual circumstances. That means it always has the harmful effects associated with sin. Subjectively (looked at from the personal POV if the person) that person may not be guilty of sin in this instance because he lacked full knowledge or full free will consent. Or his guilt may be mitigated by circumstances.Does it mean that it’s always a sin? In theory it’s a son? Usually a sin, but under certain subjective circumstances, it may not be a sin?
The circumstances do not lessen the evil.So, from the first link…
“The circumstances, including the consequences, are secondary elements of a moral act. They contribute to increasing or diminishing the moral goodness or evil of human acts (for example, the amount of a theft). They can also diminish or increase the agent’s responsibility (such as acting out of a fear of death).”
Does this mean an “objectively sinful” act would always be evil, but could be greater or lesser sin depending on circumstances?..
… and if so, that means that an “objectively sinful” act could be a venial, not mortal sin, depending on the circumstances?
So, who then determines if one is culpable? Only God could really do this, correct? Even a priest only knows what he is told. Perhaps this is why one can have one priest tell someone something is mortal sin and another priest say it is venial, or no sin at all? And how do we live our lives with all this gray area? Some may just say always avoid “objectively sinful” matter, but it is not always possible due to complications.But the culpability (personal guilt) of someone may be lessened…or even not at all. Say for example a child taught that it is moral to steal and that they must do so…(perhaps)
An “objectively gravely sinful act” is always going to remain “objectively gravely sinful” but the person doing it may be "subjectively not fully culpable for mortal sin.
Or the opposite can happen…the persons sin can be increased! Due to circumstances.
So in the case of the couple and contraception, once they heard that the church taught it was objectively sinful, that would increase their culpability and guilt, I assume? So at that point would it become mortal sin? Or, because they still had a long history of not knowing it was sinful and a load of mental baggage, would they not be guilty of mortal sin at that point because it was really hard for them to grasp it as sinful in their own thinking?It means it is always sinful objectively, that is, looked at outside specific individual circumstances. That means it always has the harmful effects associated with sin. Subjectively (looked at from the personal POV if the person) that person may not be guilty of sin in this instance because he lacked full knowledge or full free will consent. Or his guilt may be mitigated by circumstances.
example: murder of an innocent person is always objectively a grave sin. If I shoot you with full knowledge, intention and consent you are dead, and I committed a mortal sin.
If my 5 year old shoots a gun at you and kills you, you are still dead, the evil effects of the sin still happened, but he has no guilt because of his age and lack of knowledge and intention.
Another example: use of artificial means to prevent conception is always objectively gravely sinful. There may still be Catholics who grew up on another planet who have never heard this teaching, and those in charge of their marriage preparation failed in their duty to communicate this teaching. So for that couple to practice contraception may not mean they personally are guilty of sin, or their guild may be less, because they lacked full knowledge. Or their intention may have been to protect the mother’s help, and they did not realize this does not justify a grave evil. So to that extent their culpability is less. However, the harmful effects on marriage and intimacy, not to mention the physical dangers associated with some of those methods, still affect them, because they are inherent in the sinful action.
What is an example of “feigned ignorance”? Trying to understand…1859 … Feigned ignorance and hardness of heart133 do not diminish, but rather increase, the voluntary character of a sin.
We are to living according to the Teachings of the Church…forming our conscience accordingly …So, who then determines if one is culpable? Only God could really do this, correct? Even a priest only knows what he is told. Perhaps this is why one can have one priest tell someone something is mortal sin and another priest say it is venial, or no sin at all? And how do we live our lives with all this gray area? Some may just say always avoid “objectively sinful” matter, but it is not always possible due to complications.
I suppose fooling oneself would be one way…What is an example of “feigned ignorance”? Trying to understand…
In a sense…but I would not exactly put it that way…I would focus on say the lack of knowledge or consent…:idea: This just occurred to me…
If it’s “objectively sinful” then it means the act itself is always sinful, but the person doing it may or may not be guilty of that sin due to circumstances and intention. Is that correct?
yes. moreover Catholics have the obligation to learn about their faith, the commandments, practices, moral teaching etc. so they can form a correct conscience and make informed moral decisions. That obligation is especially strong when they disagree with Church teaching. Then they have an absolute obligation to keep studying, consulting with priests if necessary, until they fully understand and accept the teaching.So in the case of the couple and contraception, once they heard that the church taught it was objectively sinful, that would increase their culpability and guilt, I assume?
It’s all mud. Some priests just account more for the fact that some circumstances really are very very difficult and perhaps believe that relieves some culpability.Someone might be tempted to think–oh due to my circumstances…my culpability is lessened…I can do such and such etc…they are fooling themselves. They can actually be increasing the sinfulness of the said act.
As to the Priest question…some priests may have received some defective formation…or be mistaken…or misinformed etc…
and some things are various judgment calls …one might ask one Priest " should I avoid such and such …is it really a near occasion for me?" and he may give advice that another may differ with.
Possible reduced culpability subjectively is not a green light to engage in the action.It’s all mud. Some priests just account more for the fact that some circumstances really are very very difficult and perhaps believe that relieves some culpability.
A Pastor can be wrong.So that means you should llisten to your own pastor in my mind even if it disagrees with what others say is “objectively sinful”. Like I said, it’s all mud.
not at allIt’s all mud. Some priests just account more for the fact that some circumstances really are very very difficult and perhaps believe that relieves some culpability.
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How do you know that? What if the pastor saw something, based on his long experience with people in similar situations, that made him realize that in this case the person is not culpable because of circumstances?A Pastor can be wrong.
In the case of advising a person to do something that is objectively sinful…such is always and everywhere bad advice. And certainly wrong.