M
Mythicalbio
Guest
He knows both.
No…To say ‘He is not bound by it’ is different from saying that ‘He has bound Himself by it’. Is it not possible that in creating free will God by an act of His Will, prevented Himself from knowing how men would use the free will He gave them?
The only future (to us) knowledge God could reveal is knowledge that will still result in the same outcome. Anything else is a contradiction and impossibility and so not a possible power to have. Your hypothetical assumes a self-contradiction occurs. There is no capacity for such an occurrence or revelation to begin with, so your hypothetical fails.Not so fast. God’s knowledge is supposed to be absolute, not contingent. So regardless of the revelation he is assumed to know what we shall choose. But since the revelation allows us to act contrarian to that revelation, God’s knowledge is contingent upon NOT revealing the future. Also obvious.
Molinism and Thomism are the dominant theories regarding free choice and God’s sovereignty in Catholicism, and neither endorses the extreme type of free will you’re referring to.My problem is with the definition of Omniscience itself, and more specifically, the definition of “things”. I can accept that God knows all things. I’m having trouble with the concept of “things.” To me, perhaps incorrectly, a thing is something that does exist or which has existed. But must I accept that a thing is something that thus far has never existed. It may be the concept of a thing, but it can’t be the thing itself and it may never exist. It is speculative at best. When I say God does not know my future free will decisions, I am saying He does know all things, but since my future free will decision does not yet exist, it does not qualify as a “thing” in the sense of something that exists or has existed. I am not trying to put a limit on God, but I am suggesting that perhaps God deliberately put a limitation on Himself in order to endow man with free will. When I use the word limitation I do not mean anything sinister or lessening of God, but in the sense that God is limited to doing good because He is Perfect and can do no evil. That is, God cannot contradict Himself, nor can He contradict the things that He has made. The question is, did God create man with an ability to choose that which God cannot foresee that he will choose? He can foresee all the possibilities, but can He not know by self-imposed limitation, the free will decisions of a man. Help me out of this quandary. I’m afraid my one-cell brain is overworked.
No, that is not possible.To say ‘He is not bound by it’ is different from saying that ‘He has bound Himself by it’. Is it not possible that in creating free will God by an act of His Will, prevented Himself from knowing how men would use the free will He gave them?
Ok, stop trying to “out think” God and rest easy in faith…I am in no way superior…I am a lowly sinner who is just very thankful for God’s grace.Well, I guess that settles that. For you, anyway. Not exactly the explanation I hoped to get. People here can be so touchy, and perhaps not you but many seem to see themselves superior to everyone else. Maybe, this is not the place to come for Catholic answers.
Yes God knows what we will all do because he is eternally present.There is a difference between what a man might do and what he will do. Do you want to rephrase that? While God man know all the possibilities of what a man might do, the question is, does he know what he will actually do?
Because God is outside time.I am not trying to be argumentative, but being always present, does that not mean, unchanging, in other words, God has no future because He is always the same. We, too, like God only live in the present, but the difference is that we are constantly changing, and this is what gives rise to the concept of time, that is, a past and a future. In this way of looking at it, there is nothing but present for either God or man, but our “future” present does not yet exist. When it exists, it will be our present and then, only when it exists, it will also be in God’s present (because if it doesn’t exist, it cannot be in anyone’s present). But I am having trouble seeing how our “future” present, which does not yet exist, can be in God’s present. It’s hard for me to see that God’s present is not the same as our present except for the fact that He never changes (of course, besides all His other infinite attributes).