N
npg
Guest
I have a question about the Protoevangelium of James versus John 6:42. It seems both are based on public claims about Mary status; the PoJ assumes there is a publicly known office of vestal virgins in cahoots with the Temple which Mary has taken on, and that Joseph is merely her guardian advanced in years, where John 6:42 assumes Joseph is KNOWN to be the father of Jesus (at least publicly), regardless of who his mother would be. But clearly Jesus would be younger than any older siblings (as per the Eastern Church), or cousins (Talmudic Aramaic he would be “bar akha” for fraternal nephew, “bar akhata” for sororal nephew) - they call him the SON of Joseph, ben/bar Joseph - militating for Mary being his mother, as no other women are even suggested as present by any NT verses. Other verses seem clear, given Jesus is redeemed in the Temple, and obligation on a father, etc.
Mary would therefore NOT publicly known to be a vestal virgin (which is kind of obvious when you’re pregnant), but simply the wife of Joseph.
Am I missing something? - since this would seem to be question against the PoJ based on Scripture, and therefore in the forums, but I didn’t find it.
Mary would therefore NOT publicly known to be a vestal virgin (which is kind of obvious when you’re pregnant), but simply the wife of Joseph.
Am I missing something? - since this would seem to be question against the PoJ based on Scripture, and therefore in the forums, but I didn’t find it.