What exactly did Jesus mean in (Mark 6:4)?

[snowflake12345]

Can you help me with this?

**Mark 6:4 - Jesus said to them, “A prophet is not without honor except in his own town, among his relatives and in his own home.”
**
Compare:

Mathew 13:57 - And they took offense at him. But Jesus said to them, “A prophet is not without honor except in his own town and in his own home.”

Luke 4:24 - “Truly I tell you,” he continued, "no prophet is accepted in his hometown”.

I’m struggling with these sayings of our Lord, and here are my pre-questions and my main question:

1. If Mark already used the words “own town” and “relatives”, why does Mark use the word “home” and what does the word “home mean? Is it a tribal term used to denote the actual individuals (kin/relatives) of Jesus family who lived physically in a house or tent or whatever with him? Some that attack us Catholics say it is meant to insinuate that it was directed at Mary and Joseph and ACTUAL blood brothers and sister of our Lord. How do I refute or understand this?
2. Why is Marks account much more harsh to include the “home” of our Lord, at least it would seem, or as I have pointed out, does home mean something else?
3. Are St. Mark and St. Matthew and St. Luke simply relating to us that our Lord used a proverb or saying that was common to the Jewish or Greek community at the time, i.e. A prophet is not without honor… etc. Was this a proverb that our Lord was simply repeating for emphasis, like how he uses this:

Luke 4:23 - “Jesus said to them, “Surely you will quote this proverb to me: ‘Physician, heal yourself!’ And you will tell me, ‘Do here in your hometown what we have heard that you did in Capernaum.’”

i.e., does our Lord follow up one proverb - 'Physician, heal yourself”, with another proverb right after in “A prophet is not without honor…” to answer what he precieved in the crowd? Should I understand it this way?

1. Does the original Greek provide any clues as to what “home” means? Or if this was a common saying?
2. Is this a situation that happened to a prophet in the OT? Where he was not honored in his own home? Was our Lord simply saying this to establish that he was indeed a Prophet? I’ve read that “A prophet is without honor his his own country” refers to the fact that most of Israel’s prophets were hated by their own people, because they came when Israel/Judah was indulging in sin; they didn’t want to be told that what they were doing was wrong, and some prophets were even killed for speaking the truth. Is this true?

**MY MAIN QUESTION: I ask this because there are those Protestants who have attacked me to say that Mark 6:4 in it’s mention of “Home” proves that Jesus had blood relatives AND was antagonistic towards his Mother, our Mother, Mary and his adopted father St. Joseph!
**
How do I understand the word “HOME” correctly? Help me please… thanks you and God Bless in advance…

 

[fred_conty]

Jesus read this passage in the synagogue in Nazareth, where he grew up, or his home town. He then said the prophet was referring to him, which the people rejected since they saw him grow up in front of their own eyes. He was familiar to them and didn’t see him as the savior and saw nothing to verify this. So they were going to throw him over the cliff.

When Jesus made this statement about a prophet not being accepted in his home town, we have all experienced this among our own. We might say something to others who don’t know us, and they will accept what we said. But try saying it to a brother and sister and see what kind of reaction you get. They sometimes refuse to believe us because we are one of their own.

May God bless and keep you. May God’s face shine on you. May God be kind to you and give you peace.

 

[snowflake12345]

Jesus read this passage in the synagogue in Nazareth, where he grew up, or his home town. He then said the prophet was referring to him, which the people rejected since they saw him grow up in front of their own eyes. He was familiar to them and didn’t see him as the savior and saw nothing to verify this. So they were going to throw him over the cliff.

When Jesus made this statement about a prophet not being accepted in his home town, we have all experienced this among our own. We might say something to others who don’t know us, and they were accept what we said. But try saying it to a brother and sister and see what kind of reaction you get. They sometimes refuse to believe us because we are one of their own.

May God bless and keep you. May God’s face shine on you. May God be kind to you and give you peace.

I get that, thank you, but my question is more, why did our Lord use the word **Home **specifically? Who was that directed to, surely not Mary or Joseph, correct? Since he already used the word relative just before it??

Would it be the cousins or relatives of Jesus lived in his home specifically, is this who he is referring to? Protestants use Mark 6:4 to say Jesus had blood brothers and sisters and that’s why he says “relatives” AND “home”.

So to summarize, is Jesus referring to “country, relatives and home” as part of a well known proverb just to further make his point, or does it refer specifically to non-believers who he physically lived with in his childhood HOME, and if so, would he distinguish between those relatives he physically grew up with in the same home, and those relatives who lived in his town? And if that is true, can we assume the “brothers” of Jesus who lived in his house were his cousins or kin?

 

[snowflake12345]

I found this online which makes good sense to me:

Jesus lived with his clan, not with a bunch of strangers in the same city. Nazareth was a tiny hamlet of no more than 100 people (likely closer to 50). It never developed into anything bigger until after his death.

Jesus said this because the rest of the world could have a romanticized vision of him having never seen him before. But his family remembered every human moment with him and had no room for any other view than that Jesus was born and raised there and was just like the rest of them.

So given this statement above (which I agree with) would the “clan” be what our Lord called “relatives” in Mark 6:4, and those in his “house” (again Mark 6:4) be those member of his “clan” that physically lived under the same roof with him, perhaps children of relatives of Mary or Joseph’s?

Am i understanding this correctly, because this does seem to make sense to me…

have I answered my own question?

 

[snowflake12345]

Am I right on my last post (see reply 4 above)?

Anybody else have some (name removed by moderator)ut here?

 

[DAML72]

I get that, thank you, but my question is more, why did our Lord use the word **Home **specifically? Who was that directed to, surely not Mary or Joseph, correct? Since he already used the word relative just before it??

Would it be the cousins or relatives of Jesus lived in his home specifically, is this who he is referring to? Protestants use Mark 6:4 to say Jesus had blood brothers and sisters and that’s why he says “relatives” AND “home”.

So to summarize, is Jesus referring to “country, relatives and home” as part of a well known proverb just to further make his point, or does it refer specifically to non-believers who he physically lived with in his childhood HOME, and if so, would he distinguish between those relatives he physically grew up with in the same home, and those relatives who lived in his town? And if that is true, can we assume the “brothers” of Jesus who lived in his house were his cousins or kin?

The word ‘home’ has meanings way beyond a physical house. This is the problem with sola scriptura - any stupid interpretation goes.

 

[snowflake12345]

The word ‘home’ has meanings way beyond a physical house. This is the problem with sola scriptura - any stupid interpretation goes.

I see, so the reference to “home” was more in terms of a general all-encompassing statement of proverb meaning all those close to our Lord since his birth?

And does the point I make in **Reply 4 **make sense if taken purely on a literal level? i.e. :

Jesus lived with his clan, not with a bunch of strangers in the same city. Nazareth was a tiny hamlet of no more than 100 people (likely closer to 50). It never developed into anything bigger until after his death.

Jesus said this because the rest of the world could have a romanticized vision of him having never seen him before. But his family remembered every human moment with him and had no room for any other view than that Jesus was born and raised there and was just like the rest of them.

So given this statement above (which I agree with) would the “clan” be what our Lord called “relatives” in Mark 6:4, and those in his “house” (again Mark 6:4) be those member of his “clan” that physically lived under the same roof with him, perhaps children of relatives of Mary or Joseph’s?

Am i understanding this correctly?

Thanks and God bless you!

 

[AnneElizabeth]

The word ‘home’ has meanings way beyond a physical house. This is the problem with sola scriptura - any stupid interpretation goes.

I don’t think so. If it were so, then the Bereans would not have been able to know whether or not Jesus was Who He said He was. I don’t doubt that many have misinterpreted Scripture, but to say that ‘any stupid interpretation goes’ cannot be true if one is really searching for truth.

St. Jerome said that ignorance of Scripture is ignorance of Christ. Its from Scripture that we can know, truly know, Who He is. If there is discrepancy, its the only thing we have to measure new found ideas with. People like their interpretations and when they go unchecked heresy arises.

 

[snowflake12345]

I don’t think so. If it were so, then the Bereans would not have been able to know whether or not Jesus was Who He said He was. I don’t doubt that many have misinterpreted Scripture, but to say that ‘any stupid interpretation goes’ cannot be true if one is really searching for truth.

St. Jerome said that ignorance of Scripture is ignorance of Christ. Its from Scripture that we can know, truly know, Who He is. If there is discrepancy, its the only thing we have to measure new found ideas with. People like their interpretations and when they go unchecked heresy arises.

Can i get some opinions form my **Catholic **brothers and sisters on my **ORIGINAL **question?

Am I right in my assumption in post #4?

Do the Forum Elders have any thoughts, or anyone else?

 

[AnneElizabeth]

…

**MY MAIN QUESTION: I ask this because there are those Protestants who have attacked me to say that Mark 6:4 in it’s mention of “Home” proves that Jesus had blood relatives AND was antagonistic towards his Mother, our Mother, Mary and his adopted father St. Joseph!
**
How do I understand the word "HOME" correctly? Help me please… thanks you and God Bless in advance…

I just want to see if I understand your question clearly…

You are stating that the Catholic idea of Mary and Joseph being very devout and attending to Jesus, goes against the Scripture that He said that "a prophet is accepted in his home’. (By the way, what Bible are you using for that… just curious because I don’t think mine says that, it might though… have to look it up.)

Am I right in this? Is this the problem?

 

[snowflake12345]

I just want to see if I understand your question clearly…

You are stating that the Catholic idea of Mary and Joseph being very devout and attending to Jesus, goes against the Scripture that He said that "a prophet is accepted in his home’. (By the way, what Bible are you using for that… just curious because I don’t think mine says that, it might though… have to look it up.)

Am I right in this? Is this the problem?

Sort of. I mean Protestants read it this way:

1. Mary was not supportive of Jesus or didn’t believe in him becuase of Mark 6:4

and

1. Jesus had blood brothers because of the mention of “relatives” AND "home in 6:4

I DON’T believe this, but some do.

How do we refute this in the context of Mark 6:4… Is my solution in reply #4 correct?

 

[AnneElizabeth]

Can i get some opinions form my **Catholic **brothers and sisters on my **ORIGINAL **question?

…

I was working on it, sweetie.

I think your post #4 is close. I think one can take it further though.

I was going to add to it too that its silly to think that everyone at a home would be antagonistic- that is, totally against a prophet. Some, yes. Some, as we know stoned God’s prophets. Others were just indifferent. I’m trying to say that there is a large distance between indifferent and antagonistic and its kind of unfair that some would assume immediately that those at Jesus’ own home would have to be that way.

Also…
Mary was (is) “full of Grace”… Scripture says so. I highly doubt that someone who is full of grace- all virtue, would treat a prophet lousily like those before.

 

[snowflake12345]

I was working on it, sweetie.

I think your post #4 is close. I think one can take it further though.

I was going to add to it too that its silly to think that everyone at a home would be antagonistic- that is, totally against a prophet. Some, yes. Some, as we know stoned God’s prophets. Others were just indifferent. I’m trying to say that there is a large distance between indifferent and antagonistic and its kind of unfair that some would assume immediately that those at Jesus’ own home would have to be that way.

Also…
Mary was (is) “full of Grace”… Scripture says so. I highly doubt that someone who is full of grace- all virtue, would treat a prophet lousily like those before.

Thank you and God Bless you!

 

[AnneElizabeth]

Thank you and God Bless you!

Hey, you too!.. I was just now doing some more searching on this topic, and found some stuff I was looking for.

As far as St. Joseph goes… We are not taught that he was sinless, but I highly suspect that due to the fact he had such graces given to him by God that he too probably “pondered all these things” in his heart, just like we are told Mary did. As far as I know, it doesn’t say that in Scripture but after all, God did choose him to be His Son’s earthly father. We also don’t know when St. Joseph died. Maybe he never saw any of Christ’s preaching- if I remember correctly, that is how it is taught in the Church. Though we do know he saw Christ speaking to those in the temple when we was ‘lost’ as a child. I wonder if Jesus was scolded for that? I think St. Joseph would have reverenced so much what occurred years ago (all those special graces given) enough that he probably would have said nothing if he had any doubts at all. Scripture is very silent about St. Joseph.

 

[snowflake12345]

Hey, you too!.. I was just now doing some more searching on this topic, and found some stuff I was looking for.

As far as St. Joseph goes… We are not taught that he was sinless, but I highly suspect that due to the fact he had such graces given to him by God that he too probably “pondered all these things” in his heart, just like we are told Mary did. As far as I know, it doesn’t say that in Scripture but after all, God did choose him to be His Son’s earthly father. We also don’t know when St. Joseph died. Maybe he never saw any of Christ’s preaching- if I remember correctly, that is how it is taught in the Church. Though we do know he saw Christ speaking to those in the temple when we was ‘lost’ as a child. I wonder if Jesus was scolded for that? I think St. Joseph would have reverenced so much what occurred years ago (all those special graces given) enough that he probably would have said nothing if he had any doubts at all. Scripture is very silent about St. Joseph.

Thanks again.

 

[ynotzap]

Mary the mother of Jesus, lost Jesus and found Him preaching in the Temple. He answered"“Did you not know that I must be about my Father’s business? other translation- be in my Father’s house” Why were you looking for me? Mary kept all these things in her heart, she too had to learn that Jesus was a Prophet.
(Even in His own home- temporarily- they had to learn of His mission which was being revealed. in time)
Nazareth was His native place, home in a general sense, they knew he was a carpenter’s son and couldn’t understand how Jesus could do the things He did. They were astonished. They knew those associated with Him The use of the terms brother and sister didn’t necessarily mean blood kin, although Mary and Joseph had kin (as I understand it-check with Biblical scholars on the culture of those times) Those in His own town could not believe that Jesus could be the Messiah, so He didn’t perform many miracles there. It was also stated in another place referring to Jesus “Could anything good come from Nazareth?”
Jesus led such a humble life that they found it impossible to believe Him, Jesus was a Prophet, that was one of His roles. He was not accepted in his own enviroment, town, and it’s people Although others could accept Him, the recipients of His miracles and believed in Him