J
jack63
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Yes…I just saw that…a discussion about difference between the calling of religious and regular priests would be an interesting thread.I’m not talking about marriage.![]()
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Yes…I just saw that…a discussion about difference between the calling of religious and regular priests would be an interesting thread.I’m not talking about marriage.![]()
That’s the explanation I was waiting for. Heard it from my priest 30 years ago but didn’t quite remember how it all fit together.If you want to bring the two together, then Paul would say that, just as Melchizedek was forever – and therefore, a priest forever – so too is Jesus a priest forever.
- Melchizedek is an anomaly – he pops up out of nowhere, without any reference to his genealogy, and his descendants are never mentioned again in the Bible. Looking at it from this perspective, Melchizedek can be said to be ‘eternal’ – without beginning and without end.
If you want to bring the two together, then Paul would say that, just as Melchizedek was forever – and therefore, a priest forever – so too is Jesus a priest forever.
I think the author of Hebrews makes this quite explicit in 7:23-25.That’s the explanation I was waiting for. Heard it from my priest 30 years ago but didn’t quite remember how it all fit together.
I don’t think it has to state, in Hebrews, that priesthood is extended; our priests act in the person of Christ, so one can still say it applies to Christ alone. Yes?I have yet to discover a single verse in Hebrews where the comparison with Melchizedek is extended to the Christian priesthood in general. I still see it as applying to Christ alone, as in the passage I have quoted here.
It is one thing to say that a priest putting on a stole acts as the person of Christ. The is great. I have no problems with that.I don’t think it has to state, in Hebrews, that priesthood is extended; our priests act in the person of Christ, so one can still say it applies to Christ alone. Yes?
Yes, you could put the two things together – the “order of Melchizedek” from Hebrews plus the “in persona Christi” doctrine, which comes from a different and much later source – to reach that conclusion. No doubt about that.I don’t think it has to state, in Hebrews, that priesthood is extended; our priests act in the person of Christ, so one can still say it applies to Christ alone. Yes?
That is what I see, experience, when I observe a priest putting on the stole to prepare to celebrate the sacrament of Reconciliation: before my eyes he becomes another person, the person of Christ.
That’s news to me. Thank you for that information. I have never had any kind of exchange of views with any Mormons.Unfortunately the LDS church has turned Hebrews 7 on its head. They say they’ve “brought back” the Melchizedek priesthood.
Respectfully opinion only and in researching going back to where Melchizedek is mention in OT leaving one pondering on also…As you can see from this thread, yes, there are other ways.
As I see it (and as I posted above), the order of Melchizedek refers to three people only: (1) Melchizedek, in Genesis; (2) David, in Psalms; (3) Jesus, in Hebrews.
Melchizedek was King/Priest…Abraham was not a King nor a Priest, so Melchizedek being a Priest…gives his blessing and.anointed with oil… Abraham…will be a priest forever?Question…So why did the priesthood pass from Melchizedek ( a King/Priest) to Abraham children? Or did anything pass at all?
Psalm 110: 4 Begins…The Lord says to you, my Lord.As a result of Melchizedek having …Blessed Abraham…before…Blessing God above…taking a priesthood from an entire clan of Melchizedek and giving it to Abraham mention in Psalm 110:4 ?
Bible Foot note…explains…a.court singer recites… three oracles to assure the… King ( ruling already, alive) he will be a priest also forever like Melchizedek and that his enemies are conquered?This time it is God blessing this King he also will be a priest forever like Melchizedek also?
When priest become priest do they not also become priest forever also?Can be read in this light also maybe?
Psalm 110 :4 The Lord has sworn and will not waver “Like Melchizedek you are a priest forever”! …So Melchizedek>>>>>> still remains a priest forever and so will … you…be also a priest forever like Melchizedek?
To be fair, the author of the letter to the Hebrews is writing this with the intent to provide an argument that Jesus really is a high priest. The Hebrews to whom he’s writing would have said “no, he can’t be a high priest, because he doesn’t match the model of priesthood in our tradition”, and the inspired writer of Scripture has to rebut that claim. So… he’s trying to ground his claim of the priesthood of Jesus, rather than take it anywhere else.I have yet to discover a single verse in Hebrews where the comparison with Melchizedek is extended to the Christian priesthood in general. I still see it as applying to Christ alone
Nevertheless, the argument in favor of the Christian priesthood proceeds from the argument here; the “priesthood of Melchizedek” → “priesthood of Jesus” argument is what allows for the argument that Christian priests are, in fact, valid priests.I have a major concern extending the idea of Melchizedek priests to all Christian priests in the context of Hebrews 7
At the time that the letter to the Hebrews is being written, the Apostles (that is, the only Christian priests in existence) aren’t calling themselves ‘priests’ yet. That development only occurs after the expulsion of Christians from Jewish worship. So, in the context of this letter, the author wouldn’t have thought to make the argument that you’re hoping to find. So, the fact that you’re not finding it doesn’t really demonstrate anything interesting.What I’m challenging here is the attribution to the author of Hebrews of the view that all priests belong to the order of Melchizedek. He never says that, does he? He only says that about Jesus.
Have the historians p(name removed by moderator)ointed the place and date when that development occurred? When and where did churches begin to ordain priests?At the time that the letter to the Hebrews is being written, the Apostles (that is, the only Christian priests in existence) aren’t calling themselves ‘priests’ yet. That development only occurs after the expulsion of Christians from Jewish worship.
Just to clear up a doubt – Are you saying that Zadok was genealogically a descendant of Melchizedek, or simply that he was a successor, centuries later, who held the same position as priest and king?The priestly clan Zadok is of his descendants in the historical land.
It would most certainly make sense. Of course, one cannot produce hard evidence for this. But Jebusite priesthood of El Elyon, the Most High, flourished in Jerusalem between Melchizedek and David. When taking over the city, David might have made a pact with the Jebusites to keep them in town, recalling the righteous act of Melchizedek toward Abraham. Since Moses, the Jews had known that the true name of El Elyon was Yahweh Sabaoth as it was revealed at the burning bush. This identification made it possible for the Jebusites of Jerusalem to remain and integrate themselves to the people of Yahweh and the Ark of the Covenant.Are you saying that Zadok was genealogically a descendant of Melchizedek
When David captured Jerusalem, was Zadok then the reigning Jebusite priest-king?This identification made it possible for the Jebusites of Jerusalem to remain and integrate themselves to the people of Yahweh and the Ark of the Covenant.
Here’s one take on it. Basically, in the period of time while Christianity was a largely Jewish sect, and while Jewish Christians still attended synagogue and temple services, Christians wouldn’t have called the apostles ‘priests’ – a priest was a Jewish Aaronic role. Once Christians had been kicked out of the synagogue, and once the shared memory of participation in Jewish ritual had begun to be lost, it was more natural to call Church leaders ‘priests’ (hieros) rather than ‘elders’ (presbyteros) or ‘overseers’ (episkopos).Have the historians p(name removed by moderator)ointed the place and date when that development occurred?
As I understand it, the general way it went down was that, at first, there were only the apostles. Then, as more and more local churches were established, the apostles (who founded those local churches) appointed leaders to be their successors – ‘overseers’, or what we’d call today ‘bishops’. Eventually, there were too many people to whom to minister to in local churches, so ministry was extended to those who would confect the Eucharist in the absence of the bishop and, in that way, help the bishops in their ministry – that is, ‘priests’.When and where did churches begin to ordain priests?