F
francesco920
Guest
Today at the mass at my parish, the priest ran out of hosts while he was giving out communion and half of the people who had come up to recieve the Lord in the Sacrament did not recieve either the Body or the Blood. The cups that contained the Lord’s Blood, however, were half-full, and it is my understanding that Christ is fully present under both kinds. If I am correct, shouldn’t the priest have given the Blood to the rest of the people who had come up for communion instead of turning them away once the Body was finished? Also there were no hosts in the tabernacle. Perhaps it is worth noting that this priest was not our pastor.
Also, I was asked this question by my sister and I told her the answer was no, but her question was: “Did the people who intended to recieve the Sacrament recieve it anyway even though they didn’t physically recieve it?” Did I give her a correct answer or was I wrong?
Also, I was asked this question by my sister and I told her the answer was no, but her question was: “Did the people who intended to recieve the Sacrament recieve it anyway even though they didn’t physically recieve it?” Did I give her a correct answer or was I wrong?