M
markomalley
Guest
First of all, it appears to me that the first situation is really clear:No. At the time we were engaged, I was very ignorant of my Catholic faith, but somehow knew I needed to speak with my local priest about the upcoming marriage since I was marrying a non-Catholic Christian and that we wanted to be married in a different church. We both met with him on several occasions and did a type of marriage prep. He informed us that she would need to get an annulment. She told him that her ex-husband was a baptized Catholic and that they were not married in the Catholic Church. The priest told us this should be a simple “lack of form” annulment. To make a long story short, her ex’s baptismal record could not be found and still can’t be found. The priest then told us that he could essentially grant the annulment and that we were free to marry outside the Catholic Church. We did that. He told me that our marriage was convalidated and that we did have a dispensation and that our marriage was valid and sacramental. .
Can. 1108 §1. Only those marriages are valid which are contracted before the local ordinary, pastor, or a priest or deacon delegated by either of them, who assist, and before two witnesses according to the rules expressed in the following canons and without prejudice to the exceptions mentioned in cann. ⇒ 144, ⇒ 1112, §1, ⇒ 1116, and ⇒ 1127, §§1-2.
§2. The person who assists at a marriage is understood to be only that person who is present, asks for the manifestation of the consent of the contracting parties, and receives it in the name of the Church.
If he, in fact, was Catholic at the time of their marriage and did not receive a dispensation, the marriage would be undoubtedly invalid for lack of form. [Keep in mind that this is the opinion of a layman and not a canonist…]
You go on to say, The priest then told us that he could essentially grant the annulment and that we were free to marry outside the Catholic Church. We did that. He told me that our marriage was convalidated and that we did have a dispensation and that our marriage was valid and sacramental.
If this priest was empowered to grant the annulment (something, frankly, I can’t imagine, but anyway…) and had convalidated your marriage (he probably meant that the dispensation to marry outside of the Catholic Church), then I can’t comprehend why your wife would need to seek an annulment in the first place. If your priest says it’s all hunky-dory then why are you now seeking an annulment? Sounds like, according to this priest, it’s all taken care of.