What is canonical status of someone who goes from Roman Catholic to Orthodox back to Catholic?

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AnthonyJ

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Would that person still canonically be Roman Catholic or the equivalent Eastern Catholic to the EO Church they had joined? Thanks.
 
Having been through a similar issue myself, this one is one of the simpler church ascription problems. 😉 My understanding is this:

Ritual church ascription is determined by baptism. So someone baptized Roman Catholic would still be considered canonically Latin.
 
AnthonyJ said:
Would that person still canonically be Roman Catholic or the equivalent Eastern Catholic to the EO Church they had joined? Thanks.
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The church allows latin rite Catholics to satisfy their Holy Days of Obligation (including Sundays) at eastern rite churches though.
 
This really isn’t as simple as it might appear. There are two points to be considered: one being Church of baptism and ascription to that Church either by will (for an adult), or parentage (for a child), and the other being reception into the Orthodox Church. A corollary question to the second is where does the person wish to end-up? In the Latin Church or in an ECC? If this is a real question, meaning not just a hypothetical situation posted for a forum discussion, I’d suggest contacting a JOCD (Eastern Canon Lawyer).
 
AnthonyJ said:
Would that person still canonically be Roman Catholic or the equivalent Eastern Catholic to the EO Church they had joined? Thanks.
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I think you should ask your pastor. You are talking about Eastern Rite Catholicism and not Orthodox right. Because there may be issues there that need to be resolved. As far as Latin Rite Caholics and Eastern Rite Catholics I always thought it didn’t make a difference. Both are equally Catholic, however I think there are some formal issues here like declaring which Rite you wish to be a member of . However, you may attend Mass and receive the Sacraments in either Rite. Flitering around from Rite to Rite I think is frowned upon because each Rite wants to prosper. And there may not be a choice in many locals… But check out the formal part. I can’t answer that.

Linus2nd
 
JMatthewA said:
The church allows latin rite Catholics to satisfy their Holy Days of Obligation (including Sundays) at eastern rite churches though.
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Only at Eastern Catholic churches. Orthodox divine liturgies do not fulfill the days of obligation.
 
malphono said:
This really isn’t as simple as it might appear. There are two points to be considered: one being Church of baptism and ascription to that Church either by will (for an adult), or parentage (for a child), and the other being reception into the Orthodox Church. A corollary question to the second is where does the person wish to end-up? In the Latin Church or in an ECC? If this is a real question, meaning not just a hypothetical situation posted for a forum discussion, I’d suggest contacting a JOCD (Eastern Canon Lawyer).
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The Eastern Orthodox have no legitimate jurisdiction over a Catholic. “Reception” into an Orthodox church is canonically null and void, and would not change the ritual church that the Catholic belongs to.
 
AnthonyJ said:
Would that person still canonically be Roman Catholic or the equivalent Eastern Catholic to the EO Church they had joined? Thanks.
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That person would remain a Latin-rite (“Roman”) Catholic.
 
runningdude said:
The Eastern Orthodox have no legitimate jurisdiction over a Catholic. “Reception” into an Orthodox church is canonically null and void, and would not change the ritual church that the Catholic belongs to.
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It has nothing to do with “jurisdiction” but it does have to do with volition. If the question in the OP is real and not hypothetical, a real JOCD would be helpful in sorting it out. Not a bunch of lawyer-wannabes on an internet forum.
 
malphono said:
It has nothing to do with “jurisdiction” but it does have to do with volition. If the question in the OP is real and not hypothetical, a real JOCD would be helpful in sorting it out. Not a bunch of lawyer-wannabes on an internet forum.
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The canons are clear, even tho you don’t like them.

They are canonically roman. They can transfer ascription upon return, if they wish; it’s considered good grounds to do so, but it’s real simple. I’ve watched a JCD+JCOD inform a number of such folks over the years. (Prior pastor was a JCD+JCOD.)
 
Aramis said:
The canons are clear, even tho you don’t like them.
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It’s not my situation nor that that of anyone I know personally so frankly I don’t care one whit one way or another. I’d rather people didn’t make assumptions on what I like or dislike.
Aramis said:
They can transfer ascription upon return, if they wish; it’s considered good grounds to do so, but it’s real simple. I’ve watched a JCD+JCOD inform a number of such folks over the years. (Prior pastor was a JCD+JCOD.)
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Yes, and people would know this without speaking to a canon lawyer how?
 
To clarify, yes this is a real life situation, not a hypothetical question.
 
I wonder if the answer to your initial question differs based on either of the following:
  1. The Catholic was originally a convert to Catholicism from either atheism, a Non-Catholic Religion or Protestism and was NOT informed during their Catholic formation in RCIA that other Catholic Churches exist locally besides the Roman/Latin Catholic Church and they, now aware, fully believe that if they had been informed, they would have original converted to one of the other Catholic Churches/Rites.
  2. The Catholic Revert from Orthodoxy gave birth to or adopted their children during their time as Orthodox and the children were baptized Orthodox.
  3. The Catholic Revert from Orthodoxy’s spouse remained Catholic the entire time OR their spouse is remaining Orthodox.
 
FWIW, the answer I gave is what I received from the canon lawyer used by the local Melkite parish, in reference to my own situation. I was told that someone with a Latin/western baptism would initially be Latin, with the ability to petition for a transfer to the appropriate Eastern Church if desired. Such a petition would likely be approved with little difficulty.

If this is mistaken, I would genuinely appreciate being pointed to a source to the contrary.
 
Denho said:
Well, canonically, if there is “no other alternative” then one is automatically dispensed and there is no longer an obligation.
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True, but of course it kind of depends on one’s view of “obligations” in the first place, doesn’t it? 😉

Not directed to you in particular, but a general remark: my position on this is well known in this forum, yet I know some folks will want to jump down my throat. Please don’t bother.
 
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