T
thistle
Guest
But that is more or less saying an individual can decide for themselves if what they steal amounts to a sin of venial matter and not grave matter. One person might view stealing USD 10 or less as venial whereas another person might view stealing USD 1000 or less as venial.various factors can go into this…
but in general reason …an well formed conscience…etc
(the Church of course where ever such is spoken of…orthodox Catholic Moral theologians )
But it is simply the case that theft admits of “parvity” of matter.
and example could be
Stealing $1000 from someone is going to be grave matter…
stealing $1 dollar is going to be venial matter…(though circumstance could make it grave…like the person is destitute etc)
of course *one is NOT to steal *
For your information I’m not talking about a situation where someone steals food or money in order to feed a starving child. I agree that might not only be venial but might not even be a sin at all.
I’m talking about a person of age of reason, sound mind, not coerced, no financial issues, knows theft is a sin but decides to steal items from their workplace or steal money (say USD 10) from the wallets of co-workers. Are you saying in these circumstances the sin is of venial matter.
Its not a trick question. I really want to understand because apart from a starving person situation I have always understood theft is theft. If I am wrong I need to understand why in specifics rather than generalisations.