What is meaning of 1Cor. 15:27-28?

[susanjones63]

Please let me know the meaning of the Son subjecting himself and everything under his feet back to the Father. 27"for he subjected everything under his feet. But when it says that everything has been subjected, it is clear that it excludes the One who subjected everything to him. 28When everything is subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to the One who subjected everything to him, so that God may be all in all.

 

[dessert]

Please let me know the meaning of the Son subjecting himself and everything under his feet back to the Father. 27"for he subjected everything under his feet. But when it says that everything has been subjected, it is clear that it excludes the One who subjected everything to him. 28When everything is subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to the One who subjected everything to him, so that God may be all in all.

To put everything in order with no resistance.

Since Satan and Adam and the those rejecting Jesus everything has been in chaos and even the angels didn’t know until Gabriel anounced to Mary now I know the king will be born the savior unto man. He made the anouncement.

The Father as part of the trinity gave the authority to the Son through the Holy Spirit and when Jesus asscended into heaven back to the Father He lsft us the Holy Spirit the teacher and this is what you should seek to learn.

Outpouring of life and energy , “God may be all in all”

Barb

 

[Cranch]

Bishop Challoner, in a note in his revision of the Douay-Rheims bible, says the following:The Son also himself shall be subject unto him. . .That is, the Son will be subject to the Father, according to his human nature, even after the general resurrection; and also the whole mystical body of Christ will be entirely subject to God, obeying him in every thing.
Haydock includes this same note in his commentary, preceded by the following note from Robert Witham:…Christ, both as God and man, shall reign for all eternity, not only over his elect but over all creatures, having triumphed by his resurrection over the enemy of mankind, the devil, over sin, and over death, which is as it were the last enemy of his elect. At the general resurrection, Christ will present these elect to his heavenly Father, as the fruits of his victory over sin and death; and though as man he came to suffer and die, and was also made subject to his eternal Father, yet being God as well as man, he is Lord of all, and will make his faithful servants partakers of his glory in his heavenly kingdom.

 

[MH84]

Bishop Challoner, in a note in his revision of the Douay-Rheims bible, says the following:The Son also himself shall be subject unto him. . .That is, the Son will be subject to the Father, according to his human nature, even after the general resurrection; and also the whole mystical body of Christ will be entirely subject to God, obeying him in every thing.
Haydock includes this same note in his commentary, preceded by the following note from Robert Witham:…Christ, both as God and man, shall reign for all eternity, not only over his elect but over all creatures, having triumphed by his resurrection over the enemy of mankind, the devil, over sin, and over death, which is as it were the last enemy of his elect. At the general resurrection, Christ will present these elect to his heavenly Father, as the fruits of his victory over sin and death; and though as man he came to suffer and die, and was also made subject to his eternal Father, yet being God as well as man, he is Lord of all, and will make his faithful servants partakers of his glory in his heavenly kingdom.

I started a thread about this passage not that long ago (here). I remember not feeling content with the responses (maybe I need to re-read them).

In regards to this explanation and the passage brought up in the OP:

“The Son also himself shall be subject unto him. . .That is, the Son will be subject to the Father, according to his human nature, even after the general resurrection; and also the whole mystical body of Christ will be entirely subject to God, obeying him in every thing.”

Can someone answer these questions please:

1 I still dont understand why the human nature of Jesus is inferior to the Father now that He has returned to the glory He shared with Him before Creation.

2 Why isnt the human and divine natures of Jesus equal with each other now that He is glorified?

3 Will Jesus’ subordination be for ever or only until judgement?

4 Was the Son and the Holy Spirit subordinate to the Father before creation. If so why, and how does that not compromise their equality with each other within the Trinity?

 

[Cranch]

I started a thread about this passage not that long ago (here). I remember not feeling content with the responses (maybe I need to re-read them).

In regards to this explanation and the passage brought up in the OP:

“The Son also himself shall be subject unto him. . .That is, the Son will be subject to the Father, according to his human nature, even after the general resurrection; and also the whole mystical body of Christ will be entirely subject to God, obeying him in every thing.”

Can someone answer these questions please:

1 I still dont understand why the human nature of Jesus is inferior to the Father now that He has returned to the glory He shared with Him before Creation.

2 Why isnt the human and divine natures of Jesus equal with each other now that He is glorified?

3 Will Jesus’ subordination be for ever or only until judgement?

4 Was the Son and the Holy Spirit subordinate to the Father before creation. If so why, and how does that not compromise their equality with each other within the Trinity?

I liked Nita’s comments in the thread you reference above. All I can add is that there is something exceedingly profound in Jesus’ becoming human. Fully human. As such, as well as divine, He will always be fully human—just as we will be in some way, even after our own time on earth. His time on earth was very much as a son of His Father: “My Father’s house…”, “I will also confess him before my Father who is in heaven.” “For I have not spoken of myself; but the Father who sent me…” In His perfect obedience to the Father, Jesus, among other things, shows us how to fulfill our purpose as humans. It is a high purpose, as we were made in God’s image and He suffered Himself to become one of us in order to redeem us. The relationship between God and man, mysteriously embodied in Jesus, seems to me to be “The Answer to the Ultimate Question of Life, the Universe, and Everything” to steal a phrase from Douglas Adams (who was an athiest but very funny).

 

[banjo]

Commentary from The Navarre Bible:

15:27 By “all things” the Apostle clearly means all created beings. In pagan mythology, rivalry and strife occurred among the gods and sometimes led to the son of a god supplanting his father. St. Paul wants to make it quite clear that Holy Scripture suggests nothing of that kind. No subjection is possible among the three persons of the Blessed Trinity because they are one God.
15:28 The subjection of the Son which St. Paul speaks of here is in no way opposed to his divinity. He is referring to what will happen when Christ’s mission as Redeemer and Messiah comes to an end, that is, once final victory is won over the devil, sin and its consequences. The final victory of Jesus Christ will restore to all creation its original harmony, which sin destroyed.

This next commentary is from A New Catholic Commentary on Holy Scripture and while it will not answer all of the questions posed by MH84, I hope it will be of some help.

**27. **The citation is from Ps 8:7; the introductory formula is implied in the beginning of the explanation. The Psalm, a lyric contemplation of Gn 1:26, is applied to Christ in a special sense; that is, he is the most excellent member of mankind. This Psalm is associated with Ps 110 in Eph 1:20. Clearly God the Father is not made subject to the God-man, who as man is inferior to God.
28. The reign of Christ in the earthly kingdom, which began to manifest itself at his resurrection and ascension, will cease with the end of the world, which will mark the end of that kingdom; from the moment of the Parousia, Jesus will cease to reign over this world for it will disappear and become part of the heavenly kingdom. Christ as man is subject to God; in the heavenly kingdom as God he is associated with the other persons of the Trinity in the rule of God, for he is God.

 

[Benadam]

I started a thread about this passage not that long ago (here). I remember not feeling content with the responses (maybe I need to re-read them).

In regards to this explanation and the passage brought up in the OP:

“The Son also himself shall be subject unto him. . .That is, the Son will be subject to the Father, according to his human nature, even after the general resurrection; and also the whole mystical body of Christ will be entirely subject to God, obeying him in every thing.”

Can someone answer these questions please:

1 I still dont understand why the human nature of Jesus is inferior to the Father now that He has returned to the glory He shared with Him before Creation.

2 Why isnt the human and divine natures of Jesus equal with each other now that He is glorified?

3 Will Jesus’ subordination be for ever or only until judgement?

4 Was the Son and the Holy Spirit subordinate to the Father before creation. If so why, and how does that not compromise their equality with each other within the Trinity?

Jesus is rightly called Son of the Father. The Word is eternally generated from the Father. We are of the generation of Adam. Jesus is of the generation of the Father. The earthly bond of father and son is not analogous to the relationship of the Word and the Creator but is an earthly image of it.
God’s cognizance is His Word. God’s cognizance of His own self is His Word. The Father Son and Holy Spirit are identicle in every way human reason is capable of grasping. Essence, substance, being, nature, in all these human ways of perceiving the persons of the Trinity are identicle. They only differ in relation to one another. The Trinity is not something we could know wby human reason alone. In this way they are equal. Power, Holiness…etc they are equal but they differ in relation to one another. Jesus submits to the Father because He is His Son. The Holy Spirit is like a divine witness of their love. In these ways they differ but they are differences that don’t relate to humanity but only to the Persons of the Trinity themselves. To us there is nothing for us to grab onto that would distinguish them and unless they reveal their identities to us we could not know them as different.

 

[banjo]

Can someone answer these questions please:

1 I still dont understand why the human nature of Jesus is inferior to the Father now that He has returned to the glory He shared with Him before Creation.

2 Why isnt the human and divine natures of Jesus equal with each other now that He is glorified?

3 Will Jesus’ subordination be for ever or only until judgement?

4 Was the Son and the Holy Spirit subordinate to the Father before creation. If so why, and how does that not compromise their equality with each other within the Trinity?

From: The Sources of Catholic Dogma; Henry Denziner………….

“He is begotten of the substance of the Father before time, and he is man born of the substance of his mother in time: perfect God, perfect man, consisting of a rational soul and human body, equal to the Father according to his Godhead, less than the Father according to humanity.” DE-40

“….one Person in two natures, clearly pointed out the way of life. And although He according to divinity is immortal and impassible, the very same according to humanity was made passible and mortal…” DE-429

“It [the Church] believes, professes, and proclaims that one person of the Trinity, true God, Son of God born from the Father, consubstantial and coeternal with the Father, in the plenitude of time which the inscrutable depth of divine counsel has disposed for the salvation of the human race, assumed true and complete human nature from the immaculate womb of the virgin Mary and joined with itself in the unity of person, with such unity that whatever is of God there, is not separated from man, and whatever is of man, is not divided from the Godhead; “He is one and the same undivided, both natures, God and man, remaining in their own peculiar properties, God and man, Son of God and Son of man, equal to the Father according to divinity, less than the Father according to humanity, immortal and eternal from the nature of divinity, passible and temporal from the condition of assumed humanity.” DE-708