D
Dan_Parker
Guest
Mailman:
Doctrines should never be established by vague or difficult-to-be-understood scriptures.
Dan:
They also should not be lightly dismissed. Some of the questions you ask later on in this post can be answered by looking at Col 1:15-20 in context.
Mailman:
Colossians 1:20 says nothing about whether any human being has gone to heaven or whether heaven is the reward of the saved. It merely mentions about “things” being reconciled to God through Christ. It can even be argued that if these “things” refer to human beings exclusively, why then did Paul chose to use that word [things] instead of the word “men”? It would have been more correct to say, “…to reconcile all MEN unto himself… whether they be MEN in earth, or MEN in heaven.”
Dan:
Paul wrote what he wrote. I am never comfortable with the notion that we can say that Paul should have said this or that if he meant this or that. Let’s look at Paul’s use of language in the immediate context and see how he uses the term PANTA.
NAS Colossians 1:15 And He is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation. 16 For by Him all things = PANTA were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities-- all things = PANTA have been created by Him and for Him. 17 And He is before all things = PANTA, and in Him all things = PANTA hold together. 18 He is also head of the body, the church; and He is the beginning, the first-born from the dead; so that He Himself might come to have first place in everything. 19 For it was the Father’s good pleasure for all the fulness to dwell in Him, 20 and through Him to reconcile all things = PANTA to Himself, having made peace through the blood of His cross; through Him, I say, whether** things = PANTA** on earth or** things = PANTA** in heaven.
Note that the first instance of PANTA are further described as beings in a ruler-ship position, " thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities." This is clearly not a reference to inanimate things.
Also note that it is “in him” that these things were created. BDAG says of this Greek phrase EN indicates “4. marker of close association within a limit, in” and “everything was created in association with him 1:16” These ones are “in Christ” and therefore are the body of Christ (cp v18).
KATALASSW (reconcile) has the gloss in BDAG of: **the exchange of hostility for a friendly relationship, reconcile **
This can only refer to human beings who need Christ’s ransom to be reconciled with God.
Mailman:
The scripture which deals directly on the subject of whether or not any human being has gone to heaven is John 3:13. This scripture is plain and clear in what it says: No man has ascended up to heaven, except Christ.
Dan:
Of course that was true when Jesus spoke those words. I agree.
Mailman:
That scripture is supported by yet another statement from Jesus: “I go [to heaven]” and “I will come back again [back to this earth]” … (John 14:2-3).
Dan:
Lets look at what precedes this:
NAS John 14:1 "Let not your heart be troubled; believe in God, believe also in Me. 2 "In My Father’s house are many dwelling places; if it were not so, I would have told you; for** I go to prepare a place for you**. 3 "And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you to Myself; that b)where I am, there you may be also.
At this part of Jesus’ life a major theme is that he is going back to the Father. His Father is in heaven. He is preparing a place for his disciples and will come back for them.
Jesus said that he wanted to be glorified in the presence of the Father which is in heaven.
ESV John 17:5 And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed.
Later in the same prayer he speaks about his disciples that they will see his glory by being with him where he is, in the presence of the Father.
ESV John 17:24 Father, I desire that they also, whom you have given me, may **be with me where I am, to see my glory **that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world.
Mailman:
Jesus went again to heaven, from where He had come. And He said, “Whither [where] I go, ye CANNOT COME.” That’s in John 8:22 and John 13:33. These scriptures support Jesus’ statement in John 3:13 that, except for Him, no man has ever been to heaven.
Dan:
That was true then, because he had not yet prepared a place for them. In addition he would die to go to heaven and they would follow in his footsteps to get to heaven as well.
Mailman:
When studying any one particular biblical subject or doctrine, prudence demands that we begin with the plainer scriptures and understand the vague and obscure ones in light of the plainer scriptures. So, on this subject of human beings going to heaven, we have to start with John 3:13, which is plain and clear.
Dan:
I have addressed John 3:13 and it does not say that men will never go to heaven.
Mailman:
Another one is found in Acts 2:34: “For David is not ascended into the heavens….” Since God calls David “a man after mine own heart,” David should have been one of the first to enter heaven. But according to this scripture, he has not gone there.
Dan:
Agreed. David did not go to heaven. Your logic eludes me and presumes a theology that you have not proven. It appears from what you write that you expect David to be resurrected to live on earth. I agree. However that does not mean that others will not go to heaven to the place in the presence of the Father that Jesus promised his disciples.
Doctrines should never be established by vague or difficult-to-be-understood scriptures.
Dan:
They also should not be lightly dismissed. Some of the questions you ask later on in this post can be answered by looking at Col 1:15-20 in context.
Mailman:
Colossians 1:20 says nothing about whether any human being has gone to heaven or whether heaven is the reward of the saved. It merely mentions about “things” being reconciled to God through Christ. It can even be argued that if these “things” refer to human beings exclusively, why then did Paul chose to use that word [things] instead of the word “men”? It would have been more correct to say, “…to reconcile all MEN unto himself… whether they be MEN in earth, or MEN in heaven.”
Dan:
Paul wrote what he wrote. I am never comfortable with the notion that we can say that Paul should have said this or that if he meant this or that. Let’s look at Paul’s use of language in the immediate context and see how he uses the term PANTA.
NAS Colossians 1:15 And He is the image of the invisible God, the first-born of all creation. 16 For by Him all things = PANTA were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities-- all things = PANTA have been created by Him and for Him. 17 And He is before all things = PANTA, and in Him all things = PANTA hold together. 18 He is also head of the body, the church; and He is the beginning, the first-born from the dead; so that He Himself might come to have first place in everything. 19 For it was the Father’s good pleasure for all the fulness to dwell in Him, 20 and through Him to reconcile all things = PANTA to Himself, having made peace through the blood of His cross; through Him, I say, whether** things = PANTA** on earth or** things = PANTA** in heaven.
Note that the first instance of PANTA are further described as beings in a ruler-ship position, " thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities." This is clearly not a reference to inanimate things.
Also note that it is “in him” that these things were created. BDAG says of this Greek phrase EN indicates “4. marker of close association within a limit, in” and “everything was created in association with him 1:16” These ones are “in Christ” and therefore are the body of Christ (cp v18).
KATALASSW (reconcile) has the gloss in BDAG of: **the exchange of hostility for a friendly relationship, reconcile **
This can only refer to human beings who need Christ’s ransom to be reconciled with God.
Mailman:
The scripture which deals directly on the subject of whether or not any human being has gone to heaven is John 3:13. This scripture is plain and clear in what it says: No man has ascended up to heaven, except Christ.
Dan:
Of course that was true when Jesus spoke those words. I agree.
Mailman:
That scripture is supported by yet another statement from Jesus: “I go [to heaven]” and “I will come back again [back to this earth]” … (John 14:2-3).
Dan:
Lets look at what precedes this:
NAS John 14:1 "Let not your heart be troubled; believe in God, believe also in Me. 2 "In My Father’s house are many dwelling places; if it were not so, I would have told you; for** I go to prepare a place for you**. 3 "And if I go and prepare a place for you, I will come again, and receive you to Myself; that b)where I am, there you may be also.
At this part of Jesus’ life a major theme is that he is going back to the Father. His Father is in heaven. He is preparing a place for his disciples and will come back for them.
Jesus said that he wanted to be glorified in the presence of the Father which is in heaven.
ESV John 17:5 And now, Father, glorify me in your own presence with the glory that I had with you before the world existed.
Later in the same prayer he speaks about his disciples that they will see his glory by being with him where he is, in the presence of the Father.
ESV John 17:24 Father, I desire that they also, whom you have given me, may **be with me where I am, to see my glory **that you have given me because you loved me before the foundation of the world.
Mailman:
Jesus went again to heaven, from where He had come. And He said, “Whither [where] I go, ye CANNOT COME.” That’s in John 8:22 and John 13:33. These scriptures support Jesus’ statement in John 3:13 that, except for Him, no man has ever been to heaven.
Dan:
That was true then, because he had not yet prepared a place for them. In addition he would die to go to heaven and they would follow in his footsteps to get to heaven as well.
Mailman:
When studying any one particular biblical subject or doctrine, prudence demands that we begin with the plainer scriptures and understand the vague and obscure ones in light of the plainer scriptures. So, on this subject of human beings going to heaven, we have to start with John 3:13, which is plain and clear.
Dan:
I have addressed John 3:13 and it does not say that men will never go to heaven.
Mailman:
Another one is found in Acts 2:34: “For David is not ascended into the heavens….” Since God calls David “a man after mine own heart,” David should have been one of the first to enter heaven. But according to this scripture, he has not gone there.
Dan:
Agreed. David did not go to heaven. Your logic eludes me and presumes a theology that you have not proven. It appears from what you write that you expect David to be resurrected to live on earth. I agree. However that does not mean that others will not go to heaven to the place in the presence of the Father that Jesus promised his disciples.