What is so objectionable about Limbo?

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I think you would have to demonstrate that DOgmas can be understood then in a hypothetical sense: But that which is hypothetical is only possible, it may or may not be true: But dogmas are proposed for Truth and for the adherence of the Faithful as Factual and real statements: I would disagree- a hypothetical situation is not exactly a false one. In the hypothetical situation where I would place a bomb in the center of NY, we know that there would be many killed. This is true, many would be killed, but since I’m not going to do that, no one will be killed- so its true with one way you look at it.

“Pope Pius IX, First Vatican Council, Sess. 3, Chap. 2 on Revelation, 1870, ex cathedra: “Hence, also, that understanding of its sacred dogmas must be perpetually retained, which Holy Mother Church has once declared; and there must never be a recession from that meaning under the specious name of a deeper understanding.””

So, Dogmas cannot mean other than what they say.And I don’t think this. The dogma that infants who die in original sin alone will go to hell is true, just as stated. Yet, this dogma does not state that the only way God can save the infants from original sin is water baptism.- that’s only implied b/c its the only help we can bring to them and the only known method of freeing them from original sin

Can you list any Dogma other than the one in question that is considered only hypothetical or theoretical and not ACTUAL in its implementation?
No, I can’t (at least not off the top of my head), yet why can’t this be the exception?
This, I would say is the best argument, but why then was JPII so quick to deny this in E.V.? He seemed to think that this dogma could be only hypothetical. But, if you do not think that this answer is good enough, I have said that maybe the alternatives to baptism of water are not absolute, leaving the dogma still pertaining to real life, just not all infants who die w/o water baptism. (desire of parents/desire of infant @ moment of death both do not include all who die w/o water baptism.

I think that God giving the infant at the moment of death the ability to chose baptism is the best. Suppose (as in St. Faustina’s diary) we are given a chance at the moment of death to repent before the particular judgment. This would be in keeping with God’s sincere desire to forgive and the great mercy of God. It also would be helpful in explaining the salvation for those who haven’t even heard of Christ. Maybe people like those in America before 1492 could be saved by living a moral life and then God would give them the ability to desire baptism (at least implicitly) and** give them faith** right before exiting life. I think this would be a nice way of squaring God’s mercy, justice, and the importance of Faith. Lastly, the chance could be used for giving the infants a chance at salvation. And if this is the case, limbo is not essential and the dogma that they are “cast into hell but with different torments” (paraphrase of the Council of Florence) is fully preserved. This is just speculation, and nothing that would ever be doctrine of the Church (could even lead to presumption) but it is fully in line with teaching and I think there are even good reasons (like JPII) to believe in salvation for at least many of the unbaptized infants.
 
No, I can’t (at least not off the top of my head), yet why can’t this be the exception?
This, I would say is the best argument, but why then was JPII so quick to deny this in E.V.? He seemed to think that this dogma could be only hypothetical. But, if you do not think that this answer is good enough, I have said that maybe the alternatives to baptism of water are not absolute, leaving the dogma still pertaining to real life, just not all infants who die w/o water baptism. (desire of parents/desire of infant @ moment of death both do not include all who die w/o water baptism.

The main reason why not is stated in the 4th canon of the 5th session of the council of Trent:

"4. If any one denies, that infants, newly born from their mothers’ wombs, even though they be sprung from baptized parents, are to be baptized; or says that they are baptized indeed for the remission of sins, but that they derive nothing of original sin from Adam, which has need of being expiated by the laver of regeneration for the obtaining life everlasting,–whence it follows as a consequence, that in them the form of baptism, for the remission of sins, is understood to be not true, but false, --let him be anathema. For that which the apostle has said, By one man sin entered into the world, and by sin death, and so death passed upon all men in whom all have sinned, is not to be understood otherwise than as the Catholic Church spread everywhere hath always understood it. For, by reason of this rule of faith, from a tradition of the apostles, even infants, who could not as yet commit any sin of themselves, are for this cause truly baptized for the remission of sins, that in them that may be cleansed away by regeneration, which they have contracted by generation. For, unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God."

Please note and understand that the last Sentence quoting Christ is given in the context of a canon **about infants **and referring to infants, therefore not exempting them from the requirement to be baptized.

Plus, Session 7 Section on Baptism, Canon 2 States:

CANON II.-If any one saith, that true and natural water is not of necessity for baptism, and, on that account, wrests, to some sort of metaphor, those words of our Lord Jesus Christ; Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost; let him be anathema.

Please notice, the canon is not about the Baptising medium, it is about Sacramental Baptism of Water Vs. Some kind of metaphorical understanding of the words of Christ which were made to pertain to infants.

Therefore to be logically consistent, we cannot interpret Christ’s words as reffering to anything than Sacramental Water Baptism.

To Consistently apply this understanding is to apply it to Canon 4 of Session Five of the Council of Trent

"For, by reason of this rule of faith, from a tradition of the apostles, even infants, who could not as yet commit any sin of themselves, are for this cause truly baptized for the remission of sins, that in them that may be cleansed away by regeneration, which they have contracted by generation. For, unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God."

In other words, Children cannot be saved by any other means than Sacramental Water Baptism. The Catechism of St. Pius V, The Douay Catechism, The Catechism of Pope St. Pius X and the Baltimore Catechism 4 along with encyclicals, apostolic constitutions, local councils promulgated under papal and ecumenical authority, and the letter of Pius XII to midwives ALL TEACH THE SAME THING. The Douay Catechism of 1649 taking its cue from Trent is very telling:

Q. 827. Whither go infants that die without baptism?
A. To a part of hell, where they endure the pain of loss, but not of sense, and shall never
see the face of God.
Q. 828. How prove you that?
A. Out of John iii. 5. “Unless a man be born again of water, and the Holy Ghost, he
cannot enter into the kingdom of God.”

Plus, what is important to understand is that after death, there is no longer any oppurtunity to merit. Judgement is immediate.
I think that God giving the infant at the moment of death the ability to chose baptism is the best. Suppose (as in St. Faustina’s diary) we are given a chance at the moment of death to repent before the particular judgment. This would be in keeping with God’s sincere desire to forgive and the great mercy of God. It also would be helpful in explaining the salvation for those who haven’t even heard of Christ. Maybe people like those in America before 1492 could be saved by living a moral life and then God would give them the ability to desire baptism (at least implicitly) and** give them faith** right before exiting life. I think this would be a nice way of squaring God’s mercy, justice, and the importance of Faith. Lastly, the chance could be used for giving the infants a chance at salvation. And if this is the case, limbo is not essential and the dogma that they are “cast into hell but with different torments” (paraphrase of the Council of Florence) is fully preserved. This is just speculation, and nothing that would ever be doctrine of the Church (could even lead to presumption) but it is fully in line with teaching and I think there are even good reasons (like JPII) to believe in salvation for at least many of the unbaptized infants.
 
This quote of Jesus cannot be taken as an absolute for all people, the Church does not teach this because we believe in Baptism of Desire. The Council does not explicitly rule out any other possible way that God could free them from original sin. If what these declarations of the Council of Trent were trying to say that God absolutly NEVER frees infants who die w/o water baptism from original sin, JPII would not have expressed his belief in salvation for the aborted babies in E.V. and the CCC would not have been approved. This is only speculation and therefore not in Tradition because as far as we know Baptism of Water is the only known method to save the infants. However, this speculation is not the same kind of speculation that is completely outside of what we know- what I’m saying is while it is speculation, it has been speculated by a Pope who will be a Saint and it is permitted by the Church.

“Plus, what is important to understand is that after death, there is no longer any oppurtunity to merit. Judgement is immediate.”
I know, this is why I say the moment of death, or to be more precise- right before the soul leaves the body and is judged. This is kind of what St. Faustina believed for adults and I think her visions are very credible.
 
This quote of Jesus cannot be taken as an absolute for all people, the Church does not teach this because we believe in Baptism of Desire. The Council does not explicitly rule out any other possible way that God could free them from original sin. If what these declarations of the Council of Trent were trying to say that God absolutly NEVER frees infants who die w/o water baptism from original sin, JPII would not have expressed his belief in salvation for the aborted babies in E.V. and the CCC would not have been approved. This is only speculation and therefore not in Tradition because as far as we know Baptism of Water is the only known method to save the infants. However, this speculation is not the same kind of speculation that is completely outside of what we know- what I’m saying is while it is speculation, it has been speculated by a Pope who will be a Saint and it is permitted by the Church.

“Plus, what is important to understand is that after death, there is no longer any oppurtunity to merit. Judgement is immediate.”
I know, this is why I say the moment of death, or to be more precise- right before the soul leaves the body and is judged. This is kind of what St. Faustina believed for adults and I think her visions are very credible.
While I do like St. Faustina, I do not think she would want us to use her visions to form the bases of Articles of Faith.

Actually the church HAS TAUGHT there is no other means of salvation for infants than baptism. Explicitly, it does not simply say “This is what we know for sure, but who knows?” IShe says: "There is no other means of salvation for infants than water baptism.

We need to take the Council seriously: Christ’s words are understood as referring to water Baptism, And these words are applied to infants in a canon for infants in the context of infants, THerefore infants do not receive grace through any other means than water Baptism.

Allow me to demonstrate:

“The idea that infants can be granted the rewards of eternal life without even the grace of baptism is utterly foolish.”
-Pope Saint Innocent I, Letter to the Bishops of the Church, 417 AD
Magisterial Document.

“Regarding children, indeed, because of danger of death, which can often take place, since no help can be brought to them by another remedy than through the sacrament of baptism, through which they are snatched from the domination of the devil and adopted among the sons of God, [the sacrosanct Roman Church] advises that holy baptism ought not to be deferred for forty or eighty days, … but it should be conferred as soon as it can be done conveniently…”
-Pope Eugene IV, Council of Florence, Cantate Domino, February 4, 1442
Magisterial Document

“The faithful are earnestly to be exhorted to take care that their children be brought to the church, as soon as it can be done with safety, to receive solemn Baptism. Since infant children have no other means of salvation except Baptism, we may easily understand how grievously those persons sin who permit them to remain without the grace of the Sacrament longer than necessity may require, particularly at an age so tender as to be exposed to numberless dangers of death.”
-Catechism of the Council of Trent; Issued by Pope Saint Pius V in 1547 AD
Magisterial Document

“Q. #100 - Where do infants go who die without Baptism?
A. - Infants who die without Baptism go to Limbo where they do not enjoy the sight of God, but also do no suffer. This is because having original sin, and it alone, they do not merit heaven, but neither do they merit purgatory or hell.”
-Catechism of Pope Saint Pius X, first published in 1910 AD
Magisterial Document

And the cous de gra:

“It has been decided likewise that **if anyone says **that for this reason the Lord said: “In my house there are many mansions”: that it might be understood that **in the kingdom of heaven there will be some middle place or some place anywhere where happy infants live who departed from this life without baptism, without which they cannot enter into the kingdom of heaven, which is life eternal, let him be anathema. For when the Lord says: “Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Ghost, he shall not enter into the kingdom of God” [John 3:5], what Catholic will doubt that he will be a partner of the devil who has not deserved to be a coheir of Christ? For he who lacks the right part will without doubt run into the left.” [cf. Matt. 25:41,46].
Magisterial Teaching as approved by the Apostolic See and acknowledged as its own Faith, Published in pope St. Zosimus’ Tractoria Which was received by all the Bishops of east and west and Recognized by the Ecumenical Council of Ephesus.

The Pope’s Promulgation is not infallible, nor does it speak on behalf of the mind of the church, nor is it written with any kind of binding language, nor did he intend to replace any other Catechism.

The commitee composing the Catechism was not infallible, nor were they exempt from the liberal theologians who had goodness knows what agendas that they were trying to bring to the table.

I can only defer to the Church’s constant teaching and assume the Holy Father was ill-informed by liberal advisors and those around him. What other conclusion could be drawn in the face of so much magisterial teaching?
 
True, Magisterial documents are pretty clear, but they never deny infallibly the hope that God would save some of the unbaptized infants in some special way is false. Even Ludwig Ott’s quote from his book (while not Magisterial) demonstrates that it was not considered heresy to simply speculate even before the CCC was written. Plus, while we may personally believe something, it is not even material heresy to believe infants will be saved w/o baptism. Eventually, the decision is not ours, not even when reading past Church documents. These are not ours. The Church is in charge and if, two Popes, one of whom will be a Saint, and a Catechism allow us to hope in the salvation of infants who die w/o baptism, then we should just accept it, the Church is telling us that past statements were not meant to exclude the possibility of God saving infants in some other way. No, Catechisms are not infallible, but just because something isn’t taught infallibly means it can be totally disregarded because of a preferred personal opinion. So, I think its best to accept the current teaching of the Church, dogmas do not change, but the ordinary teachings do to some extent, so if the Church says we can hope for salvation for the unbaptized, I agree and say that we can, its not for me to decide- God is the judge of the infants, the Church tells us what we can believe about that judgment. While we cannot presume they are saved, we must accept that believing in salvation of unbaptized infants is reasonable and permitted.
 
But that preffered option is the TEACHING AUTHORITY OF THE CHURCH. I do not understand: How can you dismiss all those things which are given as true and REAL Church teaching? I do not understand.
 
But that preffered option is the TEACHING AUTHORITY OF THE CHURCH. I do not understand: How can you dismiss all those things which are given as true and REAL Church teaching? I do not understand.
Well, I do not dismiss them. I simply interpret them differently. I see the statements and see statements that say the only way we can help infants is baptism, I do not see statements that say there is no other possible way God could give salvation to the infants who die without Baptism of water. Why do I interpret them this way? Well, I guess the same reason soon to be Blessed JPII did. — The CHURCH says we are to interpret them this way. I think I have made my point now, so I will conclude with saying what I said in my first post: “my opinion is not dogma and the CCC is open to my opinion or yours.” In other words (As oneofthewomen called it) “My Rulebook” permits this speculation.
Well that’s all I have to say (at least for now) 😉
 
I really appreciate your candor and your honesty. I don’t want anyone to think I am without Charity, I just don’t want to be without reason. 🙂

THanks for the feedback. 🙂
 
Well, I do not dismiss them. I simply interpret them differently. I see the statements and see statements that say the only way we can help infants is baptism, I do not see statements that say there is no other possible way God could give salvation to the infants who die without Baptism of water. Why do I interpret them this way? Well, I guess the same reason soon to be Blessed JPII did. — The CHURCH says we are to interpret them this way. I think I have made my point now, so I will conclude with saying what I said in my first post: “my opinion is not dogma and the CCC is open to my opinion or yours.” In other words (As oneofthewomen called it) “My Rulebook” permits this speculation.
Well that’s all I have to say (at least for now) 😉
When the Church teaches, it teaches CLEARLY, not ambiguously: THese things mean what they say: And we do not interpret the old in light of the new.

On the Contrary, we interpret that which appears novel in the light of tradition: If it doesn’t fit the bill, then we do not accept it. THe CCC Can only be interpreted in the light of what has gone on before: And that teaching is self-evident. As all teaching intends to be. Baptism is the only means of salvation for infants. Whatever the CCC says must be harmonized with this fact, in one way or another.

I think this is what you are trying to do, so I respect your opinios on these issues. Thanks 🙂
 
This debate illustrates perfectly the gulf that exists between traditionalist catholics, those who believe literally in EVERY article of the Catholic Faith, as dogmatically defined by the Popes and Ecumenical Councils, and the neo-catholics, who believe SOME of the articles of Faith and choose to INTERPRETE the rest as it suits them.

The neo-catholics are never bound by any Church definitions, no matter how clear, because for them there is ALWAYS a loophole somewhere. For them, everything is subject to personal interpretation, just as the Faith was to Martin Luther. If I were to say, “I hate chocolate”, they would somehow be able to interprete this to mean, “I love chocolate.” For them, words have no real, objective meaning, so any sentence can be twisted around to mean whatever they please.

This is why it´s so often a waste of time debating with them.

Despite this, I have to congratulate Gregory, not only for his concise and intelligent exposition of the necessity of baptism, but also for his patience in replying to all the objections. You did good. 👍
 
The neo-catholics are never bound by any Church definitions, no matter how clear, because for them there is ALWAYS a loophole somewhere. For them, everything is subject to personal interpretation, just as the Faith was to Martin Luther. If I were to say, “I hate chocolate”, they would somehow be able to interprete this to mean, “I love chocolate.” For them, words have no real, objective meaning, so any sentence can be twisted around to mean whatever they please.
To take an example somewhat more on point: What passed for chocolate in, say, 1530, when the discovery of the New World (where cacao grows) was only a few decades old, was a harsh, bitter, spiced beverage which we would barely recognize. Solid chocolate was not even invented until 1847, three full centuries after Martin Luther’s death. It’s in fact very plausible that someone like Martin Luther (or Leo X) could have said “I hate chocolate,” but would have loved a Hershey bar or Cadbury egg. Certainly, one would be making a big mistake to draw a facile conclusion like, “Well, he said he didn’t like chocolate, and this is chocolate, so he couldn’t have liked it.” You have to learn what the words mean now versus what they meant centuries ago, investigate the history, account for changing circumstances, and generally apply a bit more bra(name removed by moderator)ower than just regurgitating stock phrases. Maybe Luther wouldn’t have liked a Hershey bar after all, who knows; but you can hardly draw that conclusion from what he might have said in 1530.
 
:clapping:

If you´re not a lawyer already, you should consider a career in law. You´re goooood!

I used the first example that came into my head. Chocolate evolves over the centuries, but dogma does not.

Anyway, I object to your implication that Luther might not have liked Cadbury eggs. That´s absolutely impossible. He might have been a heretic, but he wasn´t stupid! 😉
 
To take an example somewhat more on point: What passed for chocolate in, say, 1530, when the discovery of the New World (where cacao grows) was only a few decades old, was a harsh, bitter, spiced beverage which we would barely recognize. Solid chocolate was not even invented until 1847, three full centuries after Martin Luther’s death. It’s in fact very plausible that someone like Martin Luther (or Leo X) could have said “I hate chocolate,” but would have loved a Hershey bar or Cadbury egg. Certainly, one would be making a big mistake to draw a facile conclusion like, “Well, he said he didn’t like chocolate, and this is chocolate, so he couldn’t have liked it.” You have to learn what the words mean now versus what they meant centuries ago, investigate the history, account for changing circumstances, and generally apply a bit more bra(name removed by moderator)ower than just regurgitating stock phrases. Maybe Luther wouldn’t have liked a Hershey bar after all, who knows; but you can hardly draw that conclusion from what he might have said in 1530.
SO, what you are saying is truth is only meaningful in the age in which it is given?

And that as time goes on truth becomes less relevant to later ages, so what was commonly understood in the past becomes less commonly understood in the future?

And then the whole issue has to be re-looked at and reinterpreted according to a new set of norms that were never a part of the old way of understanding truth?

Well, I will admit that’s what’s happening TODAY, but it’s wrong. The Church teaching is the church teaching, and when the church teaches “a”, it does not mean “b”. It means “a”.

THere may be “a1”, “a2”, “a3” extrapolated as time goes on: But these always have the quality and nature of “a.” Not “b.”

To say otherwise is to say that the Church does not teach clearly, and it does. THen you get set back into a whole pattern of “interpreting” the magisterial documents, which ARE interpretations of the issues at hand, and then subjecting THOSE interpretations to FURTHER interpretations until you do violence to the doctrine and end up with something substantially different from what you started with.

IN other words, it is entirely possible to know the church’s mind on a particular topic by reading what the magisterial documents SAY. They do not need to be subject to long forms of reinterpretation ad nauseum, because TEACHING is mean to CLARIFY. You are meant to LEARN something from it, not become CONFUSED. The magisterium is a TEACHING office: Therefore those authentic documents issued by the magisterium are sufficient to understand the mind of the Church. Any later documents that contradict the CONSTATN position of the magisterium either need to be discraded or THEN reinterpreted, because they are the documents introducing the confusion, not the previous unanimous teaching.
 
IN other words, it is entirely possible to know the church’s mind on a particular topic by reading what the magisterial documents SAY. They do not need to be subject to long forms of reinterpretation ad nauseum, because TEACHING is mean to CLARIFY. You are meant to LEARN something from it, not become CONFUSED. The magisterium is a TEACHING office: Therefore those authentic documents issued by the magisterium are sufficient to understand the mind of the Church. Any later documents that contradict the CONSTATN position of the magisterium either need to be discraded or THEN reinterpreted, because they are the documents introducing the confusion, not the previous unanimous teaching.
Jesus was also a teacher. So how about if we realize that we can pay the same kind regards to magisterial teachings of the Church that we pay to Jesus’ teachings like “Call no man father” and “I say to you not to swear at all”? If you read those passages without the guidance of the Church, you might accidentally think they meant that we should call no man ‘father’ and not swear any oaths. Instead, they actually turned out to mean “Call all priests ‘Father’” and “Go ahead and swear oaths as long as you do so truly.”

Your problem lies in reading old magisterial texts with the same eye that a Protestant turns on the Bible: you come to a personal decision about what you think it “obviously” means, and then if the Church tells you that your reading is wrong you say, “But it is obvious and does not NEED any interpretation!!! Therefore I judge what the Church says to be in ERROR and it must be discarded!!!”

This, I’m afraid, is a mere variant of the sola scriptura approach, a form of pseudotradition which is nothing if not modern at its core.
 
To take an example somewhat more on point: What passed for chocolate in, say, 1530, when the discovery of the New World (where cacao grows) was only a few decades old, was a harsh, bitter, spiced beverage which we would barely recognize. Solid chocolate was not even invented until 1847, three full centuries after Martin Luther’s death. It’s in fact very plausible that someone like Martin Luther (or Leo X) could have said “I hate chocolate,” but would have loved a Hershey bar or Cadbury egg. Certainly, one would be making a big mistake to draw a facile conclusion like, “Well, he said he didn’t like chocolate, and this is chocolate, so he couldn’t have liked it.” You have to learn what the words mean now versus what they meant centuries ago, investigate the history, account for changing circumstances, and generally apply a bit more bra(name removed by moderator)ower than just regurgitating stock phrases. Maybe Luther wouldn’t have liked a Hershey bar after all, who knows; but you can hardly draw that conclusion from what he might have said in 1530.
So, are you trying to say that we need the living magisterium (the pope and bishops who are alive now) to tell us that even though a hypothetical previous pope allowed chocolate during the communion fast, these days the thing we call chocolate is not allowed during the communion fast?

Or are you saying we as individuals must study history and documents and make these calls ourselves?

I think you mean the first paragraph, but these days I seem to make every assumption wrong, so I’ve got to ask.
 
Jesus was also a teacher. So how about if we realize that we can pay the same kind regards to magisterial teachings of the Church that we pay to Jesus’ teachings like “Call no man father” and “I say to you not to swear at all”?

Because the church is the ultimate authority on vague issues like these verses, and the CHURCH has spoken on the issue of infant salvation/damnation; She has issued documents that make the position clear. THerefore, what is left to interpret?

If you read those passages without the guidance of the Church, you might accidentally think they meant that we should call no man ‘father’ and not swear any oaths. Instead, they actually turned out to mean “Call all priests ‘Father’” and “Go ahead and swear oaths as long as you do so truly.”

That could be possible if we are talking about REMOTE sources of Faith like Scripture and Tradition. But, theologically, our IMMEDIATE sources of faith are the MAGISTERIAL DOCUMENTS. The Dogmas are not subject to re-interpretation in order to find a deeper mystery, they are by their nature irreformable. The magisterial documents like humanae vitae, are they subject to reinterpretation? What about JPII’s Encyclical of ordination of women? Is that subject to interpretation? No, THE CHURCH TEACHES CLEARLY.Maybe at the hands of liberals and modernists whose goal is to reinterpret everything according to their own mind.

In “Humani Generis” (1950; #21), Pope Pius XII declared:
“God has given to his Church a living Teaching Authority * to elucidate and explain CLEARLY what is contained in the Deposit of Faith only obscurely and implicitly… If the Church does exercise this function of teaching, **either in the ordinary ***or the extraordinary way, it is clear how false is a procedure which would attempt to explain what is clear by means of what is obscure. INDEED THE VERY OPPOSITE PROCEDURE MUST BE USED.”

Again: Vatican I : "For the doctrine of the faith which God has revealed is put forward
not as some philosophical discovery capable of being perfected by human intelligence, but as a divine deposit committed to the spouse of Christ to be faithfully protected and infallibly promulgated. Hence, too,that meaning of the sacred dogmas is ever to be maintained which has once been declared by holy mother church, and there must never be any abandonment of this sense under the pretext or in the name of a more profound understanding.

The Point is the Church teaches clearly. Cogently.

Your problem lies in reading old magisterial texts with the same eye that a Protestant turns on the Bible: you come to a personal decision about what you think it “obviously” means, and then if the Church tells you that your reading is wrong you say, “But it is obvious and does not NEED any interpretation!!! Therefore I judge what the Church says to be in ERROR and it must be discarded!!!”

Quite wrong, because Magisterial documents and scripture are not the same thing at all. Magisterial documents clarify an issue that is either implicit or vague in a remote source of faith like scripture, or Tradition.

For example, The magisterium has infallibly defined Jesus’ words in John 3 “Unless a man be born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of heaven.” to be reffering ONLY to Sacramental water baptism. Not some kind of metaphor, but ONLY Water Baptism.

THerefore, you cannot reinterpret this dogma and try to make it mean other than what it says, as declared by Vatican I: It means what it says, it is not hypothetical, and it is not abstract: It is real and actual, That is, pertaining to reality, everyday life.

In the same way, the magisterial documents of the Church have defined infallibly what kind of people descend to hell to be punished: “THose who die…in original sin alone.”

Since in REAL LIFE there is no other group of people besides infants and mentally handicapped that can EVER fit this description, it is reffering to them.

If you are saying I have the same attitude toward the magisterium as the Protestants have toward scripture: how so? THe Protestants believe the Scripture alone is the sole rule of Faith; But I contend what the Church contends, that Scripture Tradition and the Magisterium are our sources of Faith, The Scriptures and Tradition being our remote sources, and the Magisterial documents being our immediate source of faith.

I am sorry, but you are mistaken about your notion of the Church’s magisterium: Are you saying that the church needs to clarify its magisterium? How is that possible when an act of the Magisterium (Teaching) office of the church is by itself an ACT of clarification? Put simply: THe church means what it says, and I take what it says at face value: I do not seek to twist the words into some kind of false teaching; I only pay attention to the plain sense of the magisterial teaching, which the church WANTS us to do, or it would not release the documents in the first place! 🙂

This, I’m afraid, is a mere variant of the sola scriptura approach, a form of pseudotradition which is nothing if not modern at its core.

Which means you do not believe the Church actually has authority to teach, just offer a well-founded opinion. Teaching is not in need of re-interpretation, or else, why would I not re-interpret the re-interpretating text? Or maybe that one SHould be re-interpreted too, and the next, ad nauseum: You really strip the church of its power if you constantly subject its teachings to review.
 
Good point Gregory:

What is the Point of the Magisterium issuing documents if nobody can take what they say seriously? Obviously they can and MUST take what is written seriously, for the CHURCH is the final court of appeal, and you cannot pit the church against itself.

THere is nothing Protestant in turning to magisterial documents for clarification on a complex matter: THat is called being a good Catholic and not accepting every trite little truism that comes out of the mouths of modernist theologians.

We are subject to the Magisterial teaching of the CHurch in ALL ages, and any NEW teaching must be subject to and interpreted byt the old, this is called being Catholic.
 
As I understand it, Limbo is an unofficial teaching of the Church. Meaning Catholics are free to believe in it, but not obligated to. Limbo is a place where a soul can be happy, but separated from God. (How that would make you happy, is beyond me though.)
I think Limbo is a cruel notion. It is hard enough to have lost a child, and without having the consolation that you will see that child again in Heaven it would be infinitely harder.
And for me personally, it doesn’t mesh with my image of God. What would an innocent baby have done to deserve being separated from God? Jesus loved children more than anything. He said:“To such as these belongs the Kingdom of God.” (Luke 18:16). In that light, how does Limbo make sense?
As a human being and as a Jew, I definitely agree with you. It is true G-d works in mysterious ways that we humans often do not fully understand. However, my feeling is that if I would feel compassion for an innocent baby (of any faith) who has basically done no wrong (apart from original sin according to Christianity, but not Judaism), then how much greater must G-d’s love for His children be. Just as an eternity of hell for an unrepentant adult is something I cannot conceive of from such a loving G-d, so a temporary separation from G-d for an innocent baby, and the anguish brought to the family, is equally implausible to me.
 
That’s because you do not think as God does, but as men do. The horror of sin and its consequences is not a reality for most people…to their detriment.

“For I was conceived in iniquity, and in sin my mother bore me…”
 
That’s because you do not think as God does, but as men do. The horror of sin and its consequences is not a reality for most people…to their detriment.

“For I was conceived in iniquity, and in sin my mother bore me…”
Of course, no man can fully conceive of the way G-d thinks and feels even though we are given some information about the nature of G-d by means of the Word of G-d in the Bible and the interpretations of that Word by the elders and scholars of our faiths. However, we are also created in the image of G-d, which means in my faith that we have feelings of kindness, compassion and generosity and the potential toward goodness, which can be linked to the merciful love of G-d.
 
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