What is the Catholic teaching on 1 Cor. 1:8?

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Is His death insufficient for non-believers? Anyway, for those who believe and follow, Christs death reconciles and unites man back with God, which is the right and just order of things for us to begin with. From there we do our part-because God wants that for us-it’s not so hard to understand-and this is simply a matter of His sovereign will based on His perfect wisdom. Scripture is replete with passages that make this clear. And the Parable of the Talents describes the dynamics of this quite well. We’re to do the best we can with whatever gifts we’re given: time, opportunity, experience, revelation/knowledge, and grace, with more expected from those given more-Luke 12:48.
 
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Well, if no sinners enter heaven-which makes too much sense-then we should be extremely grateful for the wisdom and mercy behind such a “place”-or state.
 
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But this explanation will not suffice to a Protestant who rejects apostolic succession.
Then you should seriously not argue with them about 1. Kor 1:8, but instead focus on apostolic succession.

It’s like saying I believe cars exist but I don’t think machines exist, then obviously you start arguing machines first, and IF that fails there is no point to argue 1 Kor 1:8, end of story.
Whoever will not receive you or listen to your words - go outside that house or town and shake the dust from your feet.
Mat 10:14

Recall that mission of our Lord Jesus was to proclaim gospel to it’s “sheep” not to argue with those who reject him in an attempt to convert them by any means possible.

Same way our mission is to proclaim gospel to those who never met Jesus, not to argue with them just because we know the letters or because we want to end up being smart over someone.
My sheep hear my voice; I know them, and they follow me.
John 10:27

My advice to you is to show them verses which clearly state that discipleship is inherited, if they refuse those by rejecting scriptures, then there is nothing to discuss further since your tool (the bible) is worthless to them.
 
I’m not really sure what the problem here is.

Catholicism does not reject the perseverance of saints.

Catholicism accepts predestination, and holds that the number of the predestined is fixed. This means that if one is of the elect, he will be saved. That is a clear indication that Catholicism teaches perseverance of the saints. We in fact can use this verse to support the teaching, not refute it.

Of course the difference is that Catholicism teaches that this plan of predestination accounts for man’s free will and his free choices, and the Church stops short at trying to define how exactly that is the case. Only that it is so.

So if you’re trying to refute perseverance of the saints in the name of Catholicism, you’re not taking the theologically correct position. We in fact share a lot of things in common with Calvinism on this question.

However, if one’s arguing this verse to refute free will, then no. This verse is about grace. To exclude free will on this verse alone is an example of the non sequitur fallacy. Free will is not mentioned here, true, but it is mentioned or alluded to elsewhere. This verse does not teach against free will, but it does teach efficacious and sufficient grace.
 
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Catholicism does not reject the perseverance of saints.
One of the problems is that many wish to insist that they have complete assurance of their own salvation-that they, specifically, are numbered among the elect-and that all believers should have this. In Catholicism such confidence borders on rash arrogance-unless for special private revelation. Otherwise, yes, the Church agrees that the elect are a fixed and known number, known by God. None of us can predict our own perseverance IOW so it’s somewhat of an academic point that the elect, are, well, the elect.
 
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Catholicism does not reject the perseverance of saints.
One of the problems is that many wish to insist that they have complete assurance of their own salvation-that they, specifically, are numbered among the elect-and that all believers should have this. In Catholicism such confidence borders on rash arrogance-unless for special private revelation. Otherwise, yes, the Church agrees that the elect are a fixed and known number, known by God. None of us can predict our own perseverance IOW so it’s somewhat of an academic point that the elect, are, well, the elect.
This is correct. Catholicism teaches that the number of the predestined is unknown. And further, that no one is assured with the certainty of faith of one’s own predestination, even though certain signs can be recognized as strong indicators.

An issue with Catholics is that a lot of us, likely out of an overreaction to Calvinism, swing right to the other extreme of the pendulum and reject predestination and perseverance altogether. That is not an option. Predestination is Catholic, and moreover, it is “de fide”.
 
So if you’re trying to refute perseverance of the saints in the name of Catholicism, you’re not taking the theologically correct position. We in fact share a lot of things in common with Calvinism on this question.
Thank you very much for this, because the more I read, the more I see that I don’t even fully understand my own position as a Catholic. One of the things I am most confused about is the concept of the “elect.” I watched Trent Horn’s 2017 debate against James White on YouTube and, while I think Pastor White gets a lot of things wrong about Christianity, I was just as confused as him on Mr. Horn’s explanation of the elect.

Here is what I know: God gives sufficient grace to all that they might be able to understand his truth and accept him. Because He is outside of time, therefore he knows who will freely choose to accept this grace, and thus accept him. Those who he knows will accept this grace are given more grace in order to persevere to the end and achieve final salvation.

This is where I get confused. Firstly, is the group of people that he gives the grace of perseverance to “the elect?” Secondly, I previously thought Catholicism teaches that we are at all times capable of rejecting God’s grace. Therefore, I can be saved once by accepting God’s initial grace of salvation, but forsake my salvation later on if I reject God’s gift of perseverance in favor of sin.

But this verse in 1 Corinthians 1:8 would seem to suggest that I am unable to do that because God “will keep you firm to the end.” It would seem that St. Paul is claiming that God does not allow me to exercise free will and commit personal apostasy, arguing in favor of a system where I cannot truly leave the faith because God will not allow me to do so. This seems to draw a parallel with Jeremiah 32:40 in the OT. God was saving the Israelites from the Babylonians, and in doing so he did not allow the Israelites to reject him:
I will make an everlasting covenant with them: I will never stop doing good to them, and I will inspire them to fear me, so that they will never turn away from me.
So my question would be this: are there people who cannot turn away from God? Have these people lost their free will?

Please correct where I am not understanding this concept, and thank you for your help!
 
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The answer to a lot of this depends on the answer to this question: Are you a Thomist or a Molinist?

Catholicism is content to affirm a set of truths and lay out a framework within which we can play and even have varying, or even contradicting opinions but all within orthodox thought, without going into a binding definition. Predestination is one of those areas. It’s like the Church lays out a perimeter. Whatever remains within is fine. Whatever falls outside is heresy. These are the truths that must be affirmed by all.
  1. God desires the salvation of all. 2 Peter 3:9. 1 Timothy 2:4.
  2. God gives sufficient grace as a consequence of #1 such that all men can attain salvation.
  3. Man has the free capacity to cooperate with grace or reject it.
  4. God, by an eternal resolve of his will, elects some people to eternal blessedness.
  5. God, on account of demerits he foresees, reprobates some people to hell.
This is the framework. Outside of these, you stray into heresy. But within it, the Church has not defined EXACTLY how these are reconciled, especially free will and efficacious grace. And that’s where differing schools of thought come in. The Thomists propose an inverse order of intention and execution: glory-grace/grace-glory and is before consideration of foreseen merits (ante praevisa merita). The Molinists have the same order of intention and execution: grace-glory/grace-glory and is on account of foreseen merits (post praevisa merita). The Thomists propose that God first elects people to eternal blessedness and therefore uses his knowledge to give them the grace he knows they will freely respond to in order to execute the decree of predestination. The Molinists propose that God sees all possibilities and through his own sovereign will, elects a fixed order of grace, and based the foreseen free actions of each man to this order of grace, elects some to heaven, and reprobates others to hell.

The two proposals are completely different and incompatible with each other, but the Church has ruled that they fit the framework and are acceptable to hold.

Calvinism is rejected because it proposes an unconditioned reprobation to hell without consideration of man’s free actions, and of course, the denial of free will. Neither Thomism nor Molinism explicitly confess that error.
 
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If I may I think it’s interesting that the Church places the word “predestination” in parentheses in the following teaching from the catechism:

600 To God, all moments of time are present in their immediacy. When therefore he establishes his eternal plan of “predestination”, he includes in it each person’s free response to his grace: “In this city, in fact, both Herod and Pontius Pilate, with the Gentiles and the peoples of Israel, gathered together against your holy servant Jesus, whom you anointed, to do whatever your hand and your plan had predestined to take place.” For the sake of accomplishing his plan of salvation, God permitted the acts that flowed from their blindness.

The basic understanding as I see it is that the Church refuses to accept strict determinism, and, in her teachings on human nature and man’s relationship with God in general, the will is never taken completely out of the equation. We can’t possibly be saved without God, and yet we can still refuse to be saved. And according to Ott, efficacious grace is still resistible, a de fide doctrine according to him.
 
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his eternal plan of “predestination”, he includes in it each person’s free response to his grace:
Obviously if you put “predestination” out of quotes then there is no free will.

How could the Church be sure you’re predestined to either good or bad works?
That someone is predestined to heavens or hell?

It clearly must be quoted, otherwise the Church would be judging us instead of pointing out the free will on which predestination depends.

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against your holy servant Jesus, whom you anointed, to do whatever your hand and your plan had predestined to take place.
Clearly these 2 have already made their plan to kill Jesus with the support of Israelite horde.
and in this second quote the term “predestination” is NOT quoted as you can see!

It’s a huge difference.
 
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How could the Church be sure you’re predestined to either good or bad works?
That someone is predestined to heavens or hell?
The Church only knows that God knows, and that our choices have something to do with it, i.e. not strict determinism, at least not in regards to personal salvation. God may well determine events that impact His plan of salvation for humankind, without predetermining that this person will do good or that one will do bad. He can use our foreknown good and bad choices as a framework within which to work out His plans. His predestined plan was that Jesus would suffer and die a sacrificial death, then using the choices of the players in this drama to work it out.
 
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You said “Meanwhile, any final touches of purification, of turning the will fully towards Him that may be needed in order for that meeting to take place, in order for that meeting to even make sense, can be accomplished in the merciful place or state known by Catholics as purgatory”.

Isaiah 53:5 “But He was pierced for our transgressions, He was crushed for our iniquities; the punishment that brought us peace was upon Him, and by His wounds we are healed.”

Jesus suffered for our sins so that we could be delivered from suffering.

To say that we must also suffer for our sins, isn’t that saying that Jesus’ suffering was insufficient?
Col 1:24 Now I rejoice in my sufferings for your sake, and in my flesh I am filling up what is lacking in Christ’s afflictions for the sake of his body, that is, the church

God desires to make us perfect, and for our cooperation in that, and our offering up ourselves with Christ, without whom it would be impossible for us.

This accusation of making Jesus Christ insufficient, where do you draw the line? If anything you do matters, is Christ insufficient? If people still suffer in this life even after becoming Christian, is Christ insufficient? If God does not offer universal salvation to all, is Christ insufficient? No, of course not, Calvinists just draw the line at monergism.
 
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You said: as long as we haven’t turned fully and definitively away from Him and remained there.

1 John 2:19
“They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us: but they went out , that they might be made manifest that they were not all of us.”

This verse appears to suggest that true believers do not turn fully and definitely away from Him.
Right, whoever they are. I think the main point is that a said, self-assessed faith, may mean very little. Again, Scripture tells us that many who think they’re saved, won’t end up that way.
 
8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God, 9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast.
It’s through faith, via faith, on the basis of faith (Phil 3:9). With a real righteousness or justice received (Phil 3:9 again), and a real righteousness that we’re expected to exercise and express. That righteousness comes by communion with God, as we come to know, and then believe in Him as this faith establishes the relationship with God that man was made for at the beginning. “Knowledge of God” was lost at the Fall; Jesus came to rectify that situation when the time was ripe in human history for this knowledge; He came to reveal the true “face” of God as we’re ready to receive it:

"Now this is eternal life: that they know you, the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom you have sent." John 17:3

The more we know God the more we love Him; it cannot be helped, and therefore the more fully is the Greatest Commandment fulfilled in us. And that intimate knowledge, that relationship and the love which is its natural offspring, is the essence of man’s justice/righteousness. Not faith, alone, which is why Paul could say in 1 Cor 13:
"…if I have a faith that can move mountains but have not love, I am nothing."

and Augustine would say later:
"Without love faith may indeed exist, but avails nothing."

And, again, this is also why the Church can rightly teach:
"At the evening of life we shall be judged on our love."
 
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Unfortunately, Calvinists are unlikely to accept any of those sources. You have to counter a Scripture verse issue with another Scripture verse.
I understand what you are saying, but we can’t let ourselves get caught up in that trap, refuting proof texting with proof texting.

Instead we should present them with the truth, as historically documented & appeal to their faith by way of reason. Instead of trading chapters & verse we need to somehow (I don’t know how) steer the conversation to right understanding.
 
Most Protestants (me included) put a high value on Scripture as the primary basis of doctrine because there is no official Protestant magisterium like there is with Catholicism.

Perhaps you could say that each Protestant denomination’s leadership is their own magisterium, so to speak.

However, I am open to reason and am impressed, receptive, and grateful when knowledgeable Catholics rationally point out the background and context of different scripture passages to ensure they are understood in proper context, like some have been doing on this thread with Benny.

Unfortunately, when a Catholic says, “such-and-such doctrine is true because the Church says so”, that may be a sufficient reason for Catholics but not for most Protestants, to whom it sounds like a parent saying “because I said so”.in response to a child’s honest question.
 
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Unfortunately, when a Catholic says, “such-and-such doctrine is true because the Church says so”, that may be a sufficient reason for Catholics but not for most Protestants, to whom it sounds like a parent saying “because I said so”.in response to a child’s honest question.
Thank you. I used to feel the same way but now I view the Church’s authority as a cherished gift. With Scripture alone each person, really, necessarily becomes their own infallible magisterium, wielding the same kind of authority for all practical purposes-and often with contradictory views when compared to their neighboring Sola Scriptura-led magisterium. From a logical viewpoint alone, however, it makes much more sense that God would’ve designated a single entity for that purpose, of interpreting revelation, a place where He guides and where the buck stops. A place that actually has a continuous historical legacy dating to the beginning. A place where reading and exegesis aren’t the only resources but also a lived experience, having received the gospel first hand.

And this is why the eastern and western ancient churches, despite centuries of virtual isolation, diverge so little from each other on the basics such as, for examples, justification, the liturgy, doctrines on Baptism, the Real Presence, the sacraments, etc.
 
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Unfortunately, when a Catholic says, “such-and-such doctrine is true because the Church says so”, that may be a sufficient reason for Catholics but not for most Protestants, to whom it sounds like a parent saying “because I said so”.in response to a child’s honest question.
Understood. But if the parent says it out of love it should suffice.

Sometimes it’s just easier to say “because I said so” until the chil understands the basics.
 
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