What is the correct translation of John 1:14?

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MH84

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Is it:

And the Word was made flesh… (eg. KJB, DR etc)

or

And the Word became flesh… (e.g. NIV, NASB, RSV etc)

Because looking carefully at the two, the phrases could have different meanings or be interpreted differently to each other.
 
This quote was one of the reasons why Im asking:
“was made” = The King James translation version is rendered from the Greek word = “egeneto” which the author John wrote as “was made” in King James English. This translation in the King James Bible could possibly be interpreted that our Lord was created in the flesh and therein began His existence. It is not an especially accurate translation of John’s chosen word “egeneto”. Rather, our Lord Himself chose to become flesh and that is what the Greek says: “egeneto” = “became.” So the Word, Who was in the beginning - Who is eternal - Who is God - became, (not “was made” or created in) flesh, and dwelt among us. So just as the omnipresence and the omnipotence of God is present in its entirety at any and every point in the universe, so now all of the attributes of God Almighty now became present in a unique way in the GodMan Jesus Christ.
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biblestudymanuals.net/jn1c.htm
 
MH84 said:
What a coincidence! I didnt know.

Did you get the answer you were looking for because it doesnt seem like it?
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That’s pretty strange that we both thought of this topic around the same time.

No, I really didn’t get the answer I was looking for.
 
egeneto – this has the meaning of Generation, or being.
It is the same root word as the name of the book Genesis.
egeneto is often times used in geneology charts to show who fathered whom and sometimes as word which is an Aorist version of “being”. ( The aimi verbs, which are irregular ).

It came to pass, it came to be, etc. are all decent translations of the word itself. I don’t have my Greek texts here to check exactly how it is used – or why “made” was chosen specifically in the KJV.

Sorry I can’t be more specific right now.

Hope this helps.
 
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