What is the difference between pedophilia and homosexuality?

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Personally, I find the entire left-wing concept of “protected groups” to contradict the equal dignity of all human beings. It seems to be part of the left-wing facist agenda to control what certain groups of people (like Catholics) are legally allowed to say. As Catholics we can NOT allow our views of right vs. wrong to be even remotely swayed by any left-wing agenda. We need to stand solid on the teachings of the Catholic Church.
 
To answer the specific question (at least in the title of your thread) pedophilia is the attraction to young boys or girls----let’s say under the age of 10—before they hit “puberty”—Homosexuality is the attraction to the same sex–I am sure there could, and sometimes is, some overlapping there. As there is overlapping, sometimes, with heterosexuals.
Are you saying that once past puberty it’s a open game field for those with same sex attraction? and society, in general, no longer considers it taboo?
 
Both are disordered sexual
urges. Society celebrates homosexuality.
O.k. here’s the situation. Some of my friends are for gay-marriage and see nothing wrong with homosexual relationships.

They asked me why would gays suffer ostracizing from friends and family as well as larger society for acting on certain sexual urges if they could choose to be like everyone else?

I rebutted why would pedophiles suffer even more severe ostracizing from friends and family as well as larger society for acting on certain sexual urges if they could choose to be like everyone else?

One is a crime and another isn’t I know this, but the latter has actually been glorified in certain times in history and in certain societies.

I mainly want to know if the above asserion is a valid rebuttal or not.
 
Both are disordered sexual
urges. Society celebrates homosexuality.
And Catholics actually wonder why homosexuals say that they hate them.

For heaven’s sake people, put yourself in another person’s shoes just for a second. Imagine for a moment that it is your orientation that is compared with pedophiles, rapists and people who would marry their dogs. Imagine for a moment what it feels like to be told that you could “change” who you are attracted to, and be “normal”. Duh, if that were possible you would have done that in middle school and saved yourself years of bullying. Imagine for a moment what it feels like to hear over and over and over how you must have been abused by the parents who have done nothing but love you unconditionally.

Please, please, please-I’m begging you. Think for a moment about how the words you’re saying (or typing) would sound to you if it were you they were directed act. Or your child, or someone else that you love.
 
And Catholics actually wonder why homosexuals say that they hate them.

For heaven’s sake people, put yourself in another person’s shoes just for a second. Imagine for a moment that it is your orientation that is compared with pedophiles, rapists and people who would marry their dogs. Imagine for a moment what it feels like to be told that you could “change” who you are attracted to, and be “normal”. Duh, if that were possible you would have done that in middle school and saved yourself years of bullying. Imagine for a moment what it feels like to hear over and over and over how you must have been abused by the parents who have done nothing but love you unconditionally.

Please, please, please-I’m begging you. Think for a moment about how the words you’re saying (or typing) would sound to you if it were you they were directed act. Or your child, or someone else that you love.
I agree there is no purpose served by playground bullying. If, however, one is using language to accurately describe conduct, (and I am not referring here to some of the allusions you have referred to above) he does not necessarily intend harm. It can fall into the category of “truth hurts”. And if someone cares about another, sometimes it is necessary to tell the truth to him, in which case it would be hateful and a disservice to coddle.
 
Equating pedophilia with homosexuality is extremely harmful. It undermines the seriousness and the wickedness of the former and it generates hatred for the latter. Whether you consider homosexuality sinful or not, to delberately confuse it with the heinous act of child sexual abuse is abhorent. I am disgusted and appalled! What is wrong with some people?:banghead:

Wow. Just Ugh! :mad:
 
I agree there is no purpose served by playground bullying. If, however, one is using language to accurately describe conduct, (and I am not referring here to some of the allusions you have referred to above) he does not necessarily intend harm. It can fall into the category of “truth hurts”. And if someone cares about another, sometimes it is necessary to tell the truth to him, in which case it would be hateful and a disservice to coddle.
There’s a difference between compassionately telling the truth to someone, and comparing them with pedophiles-which is what the whole topic of this thread was about. :nope:
 
There’s a difference between compassionately telling the truth to someone, and comparing them with pedophiles-which is what the whole topic of this thread was about. :nope:
Sorry but I still think the question is legitimate - if - the claim is that homosexuality is a genetically determined behavior. In that case, I see no basis for the normalization of one behavior and the criminalization of the other since both would certainly have to be of genetic origins.

If the understanding is that behavior, while having genetic influences, is chosen, then I would agree there is no fair comparison between the two.
 
For heaven’s sake people, put yourself in another person’s shoes just for a second. Imagine for a moment that it is your orientation that is compared with pedophiles, rapists and people who would marry their dogs. Imagine for a moment what it feels like to be told that you could “change” who you are attracted to, and be “normal”. Duh, if that were possible you would have done that in middle school and saved yourself years of bullying. Imagine for a moment what it feels like to hear over and over and over how you must have been abused by the parents who have done nothing but love you unconditionally.
I know you don’t want any comparisons of pedophilia to homosexuality, but the above scenario could just as easily be applied to a pedophile. Imagine being in the shoes of a pedophile, someone who is attracted to little children (but one who does not act on those urges). Imagine being told you could “change” who you are attracted to, and be “normal”. Consent is not an issue, as this pedophile doesn’t actually act on any of his urges but nonetheless has an attraction towards children. Imagine being thrust into a society which condemns you as sick and perverted when you didn’t ask to have this type of sexual attraction.
 
At any rate, the response regarding why pedophilia is different would be what others have said; it involves 2 consenting adults, not an adult and a child.
Where does incest between two consenting adults fall in there?
 
I know you don’t want any comparisons of pedophilia to homosexuality, but the above scenario could just as easily be applied to a pedophile. Imagine being in the shoes of a pedophile, someone who is attracted to little children (but one who does not act on those urges). Imagine being told you could “change” who you are attracted to, and be “normal”. Consent is not an issue, as this pedophile doesn’t actually act on any of his urges but nonetheless has an attraction towards children. Imagine being thrust into a society which condemns you as sick and perverted when you didn’t ask to have this type of sexual attraction.
Would this person be called sinful or disordered in his being then? Or would he or she not be called those things unless they acted?
 
Would this person be called sinful or disordered in his being then? Or would he or she not be called those things unless they acted?
That is the question. But either way, then what are you saying is the difference between a pedophile who doesn’t act on it and a homosexual who doesn’t act on it? You responded to a poster who referred to both of these things as “disordered sexual urges.” From your response, it appeared as if you believe pedophilia is just that but homosexuality is not, and the two should not be compared. If, on the other hand, a double standard does not exist for people who don’t act on these urges, then what was inherently wrong with the "disordered sexual urge"comment?
 
That is the question. But either way, then what are you saying is the difference between a pedophile who doesn’t act on it and a homosexual who doesn’t act on it? You responded to a poster who referred to both of these things as “disordered sexual urges.” From your response, it appeared as if you believe pedophilia is just that but homosexuality is not, and the two should not be compared. If, on the other hand, a double standard does not exist for people who don’t act on these urges, then what was inherently wrong with the "disordered sexual urge"comment?
Fits, this whole line of argument becomes absurd if you simply assert that homosexuals and pedophiles chose their behavior. Then you can respond that the pedophile has chosen conduct that cannot be tolerated by society and homosexuals have chosen activity that can be tolerated.

That does, however, sink the whole thrust of the argument that hmoosexuals can’t help themselves - but I think it is closer to the truth.
 
Grace & Peace!
Fits, this whole line of argument becomes absurd if you simply assert that homosexuals and pedophiles chose their behavior. Then you can respond that the pedophile has chosen conduct that cannot be tolerated by society and homosexuals have chosen activity that can be tolerated.

That does, however, sink the whole thrust of the argument that homosexuals can’t help themselves - but I think it is closer to the truth.
Biggie, I’ve been wanting to respond substantially to your last (and very gracious) post to me, but finding the time has been difficult. In the meantime, I wanted to address the thought above.

I think the danger of associating homosexuality with pedophilia is in the confusion that it creates between a potential site of good and a site of known evil. In other words, you are basically saying: Because homosexual desire (like heterosexual desire) is capable of poor expression or evil use, it (unlike heterosexual desire) is therefore analogous to every evil use to which it can be put.
That’s a ludicrous thing to say. It’s like saying heterosexual desire is analogous to the desire to serially rape people.

The point is, it is possible for homosexuality and heterosexuality to fall victim to some sort of pathology. But to identify the orientation with the pathology would be analogous to killing the patient to destroy his disease. In other words, identifying an orientation with a pathology to which it can become prey is an instance of injustice, plain and simple, because it represents intellectual complicity in the degradation of a good or a potential good.

Even if pedophilia is shown to have a foundation in some sort of natural biological circumstance, as we know heterosexuality is and as we are discovering homosexuality to be, a couple things would need to be demonstrated: 1–Is it possible for two pedophiles to be in relationship? It is taken for granted that an honest, non-predatory homosexual relationship or heterosexual relationship occurs between people who share the same sexual orientation. Is it possible for an adult pedophile to be in relationship with a child pedophile? (Seems a bit ludicrous to me, but…)
2–if it is possible, is such a relationship capable of producing the fruits of the spirit as heterosexual and homosexual relationships have?
Even if pedophilia is biological in the same way heterosexuality is, for instance, it still has a long way to go to show that it can be expressed in a morally positive way. Evidence seems to suggest, however, that unlike homosexuality or heterosexuality, pedophilia is a pathological condition occurring within the expression of either homosexuality or heterosexuality.

The idea that you suggest–that homosexuality is chosen, as is pedophilia–would again reduce homosexuality to a heterosexual pathology or a subset of heterosexual desire. I do not believe this idea is anywhere part of church teaching, nor is it a part of our current understanding of human sexuality. (Also, I’ve addressed why this position is untenable in previous posts.)

Finally, simply because homosexuality is likely to have a biological origin does not make homosexual expression any more compulsive than heterosexual expression. (What it requires is a moral understanding of homosexuality which helps homosexuals flourish with their sexuality, not in spite of it.) In both cases, expression is not necessarily compulsion. The presence of compulsion (heterosexual or homosexual) is more than likely revelatory of a problem than it is revelatory of a healthy sexuality. But neither homosexuality nor heterosexuality are indicative of fundamentally compulsive behaviors. Your remarks make me wonder: are you reading statements like, “I can’t help it if I’m gay,” as “I can’t help having sex in deviant ways?” If you are, I think you’re misreading something, as well as missing an important point.

Under the Mercy,
Mark

Deo Gratias!
 
INDENT] 1–Is it possible for two pedophiles to be in relationship? It is taken for granted that an honest, non-predatory homosexual relationship or heterosexual relationship occurs between people who share the same sexual orientation. Is it possible for an adult pedophile to be in relationship with a child pedophile? (Seems a bit ludicrous to me, but…)
2–if it is possible, is such a relationship capable of producing the fruits of the spirit as heterosexual and homosexual relationships have?
[/INDENT]
As for 1, I don’t think that’s a fair assessment. I don’t think the proper assessment is that it is taken for granted that a non-predatory relationship occurs between two people who share the same sexual orientation. A non-predatory relationship occurs between people who share a mutual attraction towards each other. In a heterosexual relationship, a man is attracted to a woman, and the woman is attracted to the man. In a homosexual relationship, two men (or two women) are attracted to each other. As terrible as it sounds, in a pedophilic relationship, it is possible (though certainly seldom true) that the child is attracted to the adult as the adult is to the child. And what about the cases of relationships involving three people - often a heterosexual man and two “bisexual” women?

Regarding 2, the Mary Kay Letourneau case presents such a possible argument, if it can be argued that other non-heterosexual relationships have in fact produced “fruits of the spirit.”
 
Grace & Peace!

Biggie, I’ve been wanting to respond substantially to your last (and very gracious) post to me, but finding the time has been difficult. In the meantime, I wanted to address the thought above.

I think the danger of associating homosexuality with pedophilia is in the confusion that it creates between a potential site of good and a site of known evil. In other words, you are basically saying: Because homosexual desire (like heterosexual desire) is capable of poor expression or evil use, it (unlike heterosexual desire) is therefore analogous to every evil use to which it can be put.
That’s a ludicrous thing to say. It’s like saying heterosexual desire is analogous to the desire to serially rape people.

The point is, it is possible for homosexuality and heterosexuality to fall victim to some sort of pathology. But to identify the orientation with the pathology would be analogous to killing the patient to destroy his disease. In other words, identifying an orientation with a pathology to which it can become prey is an instance of injustice, plain and simple, because it represents intellectual complicity in the degradation of a good or a potential good.

Even if pedophilia is shown to have a foundation in some sort of natural biological circumstance, as we know heterosexuality is and as we are discovering homosexuality to be, a couple things would need to be demonstrated: 1–Is it possible for two pedophiles to be in relationship? It is taken for granted that an honest, non-predatory homosexual relationship or heterosexual relationship occurs between people who share the same sexual orientation. Is it possible for an adult pedophile to be in relationship with a child pedophile? (Seems a bit ludicrous to me, but…)
2–if it is possible, is such a relationship capable of producing the fruits of the spirit as heterosexual and homosexual relationships have?
Even if pedophilia is biological in the same way heterosexuality is, for instance, it still has a long way to go to show that it can be expressed in a morally positive way. Evidence seems to suggest, however, that unlike homosexuality or heterosexuality, pedophilia is a pathological condition occurring within the expression of either homosexuality or heterosexuality.

The idea that you suggest–that homosexuality is chosen, as is pedophilia–would again reduce homosexuality to a heterosexual pathology or a subset of heterosexual desire. I do not believe this idea is anywhere part of church teaching, nor is it a part of our current understanding of human sexuality. (Also, I’ve addressed why this position is untenable in previous posts.)

Finally, simply because homosexuality is likely to have a biological origin does not make homosexual expression any more compulsive than heterosexual expression. (What it requires is a moral understanding of homosexuality which helps homosexuals flourish with their sexuality, not in spite of it.) In both cases, expression is not necessarily compulsion. The presence of compulsion (heterosexual or homosexual) is more than likely revelatory of a problem than it is revelatory of a healthy sexuality. But neither homosexuality nor heterosexuality are indicative of fundamentally compulsive behaviors. Your remarks make me wonder: are you reading statements like, “I can’t help it if I’m gay,” as “I can’t help having sex in deviant ways?” If you are, I think you’re misreading something, as well as missing an important point.

Under the Mercy,
Mark

Deo Gratias!
Hey, Mark. Yes, you’re right, this is real work.

In response, as you may have guessed, I do not personally find any relationship between pedophilia and homosexuality or heterosexuality, for that matter, other than the fact that sexuality is the instrument considered. I do, however, believe that the posture of the current homosexual argument includes logic that inevitably leads to the comparison. It is, in the final analysis, the logic that I continue to struggle with.

Within the context of the assertion that homosexuality is genetically selected is the logic that other sexual preferences (and beyond, other behaviors in general) are genetically selected, a possibility you allowed for in your response as to Pedophilia. Neither I, nor apparently you, believe the science is there yet if it ever will be to fully assert that genetics accounts for sexuality. We are therefore left with scant knowledge, anecdotal accounts and the logic of argument. Logically, if you are staking everything on the belief that the specific behavior of the homosexual has been selected for him, you have no basis to conversely say that the specific behavior of the pedophile or any other behavior has not been genetically selected.

If it were somehow able to be shown that behavior is genetically determined, there would no longer be a basis for punishment or guilt, no longer a need for redemption, but also no basis for freedom, justice, love. It is, in the final analysis, dehumanizing.

Perhaps it is a question of what part of the homosexual or heterosexual behavioral complex is inherited, but that limitation does not prove satisfactory in the light of appeals similar to those of our friend Fits in this thread. I.E., I would not doubt that something in the same / opposite sex attraction is selected; if you would insist all of the attraction is selected, I might doubt it but accept the statement out of courtesy. But that would still leave the act that follows from the attraction, which I would assert is within the control of the actor, whether to perform it or not, which Fits is appealing that he wouldn’t have chosen if he could choose. So you and I may agree that the compulsion to perform the act doesn’t exist, but that appears to be insufficient to satifsy the expectations of the homosexual argument.

As the ability to chose or reject the act exists, so to does responsibilty for the act exist, and culpability if you accept the act as evil. And as I indicated earlier, I accept culpability exists in concupiscence, not simply in homosexual conduct. Even at the beginning, for example, the faithful heterosexual holds himself culpable for impure thoughts on which he dwells.

That, I suspect, is the rub. The desire to be viewed as a class, among other motives, not the least of which is guilt, propels the argument that like skin color or ethnicity, homosexuality as a complex of emotions and behaviors is selected. If the behavior can be avoided, then the notion of class as well as innocence vanishes.

You, yourself, first reject the idea that homosexuality is chosen asserting that such a condition would make it a subset of heterosexuality. You later, however, deny that it is compulsion. I would clarify by saying that choice makes it a subset of concupiscence, even as hetersexuality is except within a specific context.

So the question might remain if one can avoid homosexual behavior given homosexual desire, why should one? Here you freely switch from condition to effect to demonstrate the difference between behaviors, using as your standard the subjective measure of “flourishing”. Something becomes good if it can be expressed in a “morally positive” way. I could not agree that something becomes good because of its effect. Weeds flourish, though undesireable, and experience teaches that evil does not necessarily fail nor does good necessarily succeed.

We had a disconnect in a prior post over this, with my assertion that something can be a good even if all visible evidence is to the contrary. It would follow also that something can be an evil, even if all visible evidence is to the contrary. Humility and self sacrifice may lead to a base life of poverty. Selfishness and pride may lead to success and wealth.

Goodness does not follow from effect.
 
Thanks Mark, you are able to explain things SO much better.

My orientation is not something I chose. My choice only enters in when it comes to acting on it-which is NO different than a heterosexual. I’m not compelled beyond my ability to control, anymore than most heterosexuals are compelled beyond their control.

I believe the term rape can be used for many situations where either a homosexual or heterosexual person uses power to commit a sexual act with another. Whether that power is the superior strength of a man over a woman, a supervisor over an employee or an adult over a child-it’s the same type of act.

Most heterosexuals would never be compelled to rape, neither would most homosexuals. As heterosexuals would recoil at being compared to rapists, so do homosexuals.
 
My orientation is not something I chose. My choice only enters in when it comes to acting on it-which is NO different than a heterosexual. I’m not compelled beyond my ability to control, anymore than most heterosexuals are compelled beyond their control.
Then I repeat, what are you saying is the difference between a pedophile who doesn’t act on it and a homosexual or heterosexual who doesn’t act on it? You earlier responded to a poster who referred to pedophilia and homosexuality as “disordered sexual urges.” From your response, it appeared as if you believe pedophilia is just that but homosexuality is not, and the two should not be compared. If, on the other hand, a double standard does not exist for people of various orientations who don’t act on these urges, then what was inherently wrong with the "disordered sexual urge"comment?
 
Then I repeat, what are you saying is the difference between a pedophile who doesn’t act on it and a homosexual or heterosexual who doesn’t act on it? You earlier responded to a poster who referred to pedophilia and homosexuality as “disordered sexual urges.” From your response, it appeared as if you believe pedophilia is just that but homosexuality is not, and the two should not be compared. If, on the other hand, a double standard does not exist for people of various orientations who don’t act on these urges, then what was inherently wrong with the "disordered sexual urge"comment?
Rape is the result of a disordered sexual urge. Promiscuity is the result of a disordered sexual urge.
 
Rape is the result of a disordered sexual urge. Promiscuity is the result of a disordered sexual urge.
Fits, I understand where you are coming from. I struggle with same sex attractions, and I used to act on them, and recoil at the idea of the attractions being “intrinsically disordered.” However, ultimately they are. Sexuality is ordered in such a way as to be toward the opposite gender. It’s primary (although not only) function is for procreation. You can see this in the animal kingdom. For humans it is more complex than this, and certainly an infertile herterosexual couple is not disordered in their action, but it has to do with the fact that a homosexual sexual act is neither unitive NOR procreative. There can be strong emotions attached between the two individuals, but the “sexual act” is ultimately only about pleasure- and pleasure is not an ultimate good. This is the same reason the Catholic Church takes the strong stance against artificial contraception that she does. It makes the sexual act only about pleasure and divorces the possibility of procreation from the act. So while a homosexual is not a pedophile, and an acting pedophile commits a graver sin (IMO) than an acting homosexual, ultimately, at their core, both forms of sexual attractions are disordered.
 
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