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Voco_proTatiano
Guest
Dear Cranch,John 3:16–For God so loved the world that he gave his only-begotten Son, that those who believe in him may not perish, but may have life everlasting.
2Corinthians 2:10–Whom you pardon anything, I also pardon. Indeed what I have forgiven—if I have forgiven anything—I have done for your sakes, in the person of Christ,
I know I am taking you right out of context, but this first verse you quote is both the most important, and the most troubling of verses.
I have struggled with ‘Only begotten Son’, and rejected the idea that this refers in any way to physical procreation. In this aspect, I support the Muslim position that G_d did not have sexual intercourse with the BVM. The Muslims find this idea objectionable, and blasphemous, and so do I.
I thought perhaps the alternative meaning of the Latin ‘unigenitum’, reflected in the German ‘eingeboren’, indicating innate, natural, true, was the original meaning.
I reasoned True Son of G_d, begotten of G_d by G_d. Reflecting the statement in the Crede.
Now I am unsure: I saw in a passage Im quoted elsewhere, that Jews used, and still use this concept, not to refer to physical procreation, but to the acknowledgement of fatherhood, commonly at Circumcission. This is a public acknowledgement, and the word used is translated into Latin as the same verb from which ‘genitum’ is derived.
Now though Our Lord promised us that all who accept him, and follow His teaching will be acknowleged as the sons of G_d, this will be at the Last Day. Our Lord, though was publicly acknowledged by G_d as HIS Son on at least two occasions,
1/ At the baptism of John, and
2/ At the tranfiguration.
Now I can accept this meaning, as it is compliant with Jewish tradition, and is supported in Gospels other than John’s, though only John uses the word translated as ‘unigenitum’.
I understand I am skating on very thin ice.
I am in need of guidance.
I am not trying to teach heresy, but trying to understand a mystery.