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dostoyevskyfan
Guest
In 1934, the attendance for the world cup finals was around 50,000. (fifa.com/mm/document/fifafacts/mencompwc/51/97/30/ip-301_01a_fwc-stats.pdf) Do any skeptics doubt the outcome of that game or attribute it to “mass hallucination”?
In 1917 in Fatima, Portugal, around the same amount of people 40,000 witnessed a miracle of the sun which the Catholic Church deemed “worthy of belief”, yet many skeptics claim this was “mass hallucination”?
Why? Is it because they have a vested interest in NOT believing the events actually occurred? But this can’t be logical, because I’m sure many people who were eye witnesses of the 1934 World Cup Finals had a “vested interest” in NOT believing those events either. If the Catholic Church deemed the outcome of the 1934 World Cup finals as “worthy of belief”, would THEN skeptics charge the eye-witnesses with mass hallucination?
What kind of standard are these people using?
What about the recent apparition of Christ in Nigeria nigerianobservernews.com/06082010/news/news1.html? It was witnessed by thousands of people. Was this too, mass hallucination?
In 1917 in Fatima, Portugal, around the same amount of people 40,000 witnessed a miracle of the sun which the Catholic Church deemed “worthy of belief”, yet many skeptics claim this was “mass hallucination”?
Why? Is it because they have a vested interest in NOT believing the events actually occurred? But this can’t be logical, because I’m sure many people who were eye witnesses of the 1934 World Cup Finals had a “vested interest” in NOT believing those events either. If the Catholic Church deemed the outcome of the 1934 World Cup finals as “worthy of belief”, would THEN skeptics charge the eye-witnesses with mass hallucination?
What kind of standard are these people using?
What about the recent apparition of Christ in Nigeria nigerianobservernews.com/06082010/news/news1.html? It was witnessed by thousands of people. Was this too, mass hallucination?