First of all, “correlate” means to establish a mathematical
relationship between two related sets of data,
That’s one definition.
usually using what is called the Pearson Product-Moment Correlation Coefficient. That can be, and has been done in this case.
So what are the figures for English citizens who owned guns for self-defence before the laws were passed? And what are the figures of citizens who defended themselves with guns before the laws were passed?
Second, look at the drop in violent cime in states that adopt “shall-issue” laws. Only a small percentage of citizens apply for permits, and of those who have them, not all actually carry guns any significant portion of the time. And when guns are used in self-defense, they are rarely fired. So we see empirically that a small percentage of armed citizens can have a dramatic effect on crime.
Third, disarmament in England has been accompanied by legal and social disapporval of self-defense – so that people are much more willing to be victims in England than they are in the United States.
It’s because of the social disapproval of guns that these laws get passed in the first place. In the liberal suburb where I live,Oak Park,IL,which has quite a few cornballs,the government passed anti-gun laws and not many people got upset about it. It was a feel-good social statement. People used to put up posters which said “Oak Park is a Gun-Free Zone”. Gun possession is not a part of the culture here. There’s not much violent crime here,even though we’re right up against a Chicago ghetto,because we have fairly good police protection.
Most of the the citizens of England who live in urban areas are not likely to insist on the right,or need,to bear arms,unless they think the police are completely failing them.