John 1:1 was written in ancient Koine Greek, not modern English.
The Greek word applying to Jesus (the Word) in this verse is Θεός (theos) It can be translated “a god”, “divine” or “godlike” .
As apposed to τὸν Θεόν (ho theon) which is literally “the god.” and is who Jesus was “with” in the same verse. Obviously the Almighty God. The Father. Jehovah. (in English we usually leave off “the” and just add a capital G. “God.”)
Using the word “god” to describe Jesus often confuses an English reader because we know there is only one “god”. Does the scripture describe two?
Translations by James Moffatt, Hugh J. Schonfield and Edgar Goodspeed render John 1:1 as “…and the Word was divine.”
Numerous translations (too many to list) use the more literal “a god.” The NWT included. Although less exact, maybe “Divine” or “godlike” is a better translation for an English reader. Less confusing.
I have been asked to return and to refute this and bring the thread back on track. My take on the JW sect can be displayed with this one text and how they dishonestly translate it.
Most of you know I am a Jewish Catholic, and as such I read and speak both Hebrew and koine Greek. Both languages are part of my culture. I don’t need to rely on a translation of Scripture as a result.
John 1:1 reads as follows in the koine Greek:
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος
Literally, it says “In [the] beginning was the Word and the Word was toward the God and God was the Word.”
There are two appearances of “God” in this verse. The first time it appears it has the definite article “the”: τὸν Θεόν
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος
The second time it is without the definite article: Θεὸς
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος
Both τὸν Θεόν (ton theon) and Θεὸς (theos) are the same word. The reason for the change of the last letter is only due to the syntax rules. Greek is an inflectional language, and that means you add letters, and sometimes prefixes and suffixes to nouns depending on what is required by the rules of the language.
The Witnesses dishonestly claim that because Θεὸς appears the second time in the verse without the article “the” that it should be translated as “a god.” Which is why they translate it as so in their New World Translation:
Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ Λόγος καὶ ὁ Λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν Θεόν καὶ Θεὸς ἦν ὁ Λόγος
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.
“When the word Θεὸς appears without the definite article,” the JWs claim, “then one must translate the expression as ‘a god.’” But this is a lie.
You see, the author of this gospel has a habit of writing the word “God” without the definite article through this gospel. In fact, this happens several times in the first chapter of John. I’ve highlighted these occurrences below with the way the New World Translation renders them.
John 1:6
Ἐγένετο ἄνθρωπος ἀπεσταλμένος παρὰ Θεοῦ ὄνομα αὐτῷ
There came a man who was sent as a representative of God
John 1:12
ὅσοι δὲ ἔλαβον αὐτόν ἔδωκεν αὐτοῖς ἐξουσίαν τέκνα Θεοῦ γενέσθαι
However, to all who did receive him, he gave authority to become God’s children
John 1:13b
οὐδὲ ἐκ θελήματος ἀνδρὸς ἀλλ’ἐκ Θεοῦ ἐγεννήθησαν
were born, not … from man’s will, but from God
Did you notice that the only time the Witnesses translate Θεός without the article as “a god” is John 1:1? But every other time Θεός appears without the article they translate it as “God” with a capital “G.” Why?
There is no reason. The translators did this betting that the rank-and-file Witnesses would never be able to read Greek for themselves and see that they didn’t follow any rule of Greek to produce their unique rendering. The New World Translation translators rendered Θεός without the definite article as “God” in verses 6, 12, and 13, but they didn’t in verse 1.
The reason for this lack of inconsistency?
Simple. They don’t want to believe that Jesus Christ is God. So they provide a translation that is faulty. At the same time they discourage their members from going to college and learning the ancient languages for themselves.
Why discourage higher learning? Because Greek is part of standard education at many universities. And if you learn Greek, then you will learn that the New World Translation is a lie.
So I put to you out there who can see this for yourselves. What do you think of a religion that has done this to the inspired Word of God? Even if you don’t believe in God or the Bible, what do you think of the rendering they choose and the fact that they don’t want people to get an education past high school?