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Aelred_Minor
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That’s a joke, right?PIE (Proto-Indo-European)
That’s a joke, right?PIE (Proto-Indo-European)
Quenya is closer to the original Elvish language, but it would seem that the first humans, or at least the ancestors of the Edain, learned their language from Elves far to the east, either Avari or Nandor. This language would presumably have been either closer to Sindarin than Quenya or equally distant from either of them.Quenya or Sindarin?![]()
Whether Eden was in Africa, the Middle East, or elsewhere, the language(s) now spoken in that region would be no closer to the original human language than any other language anywhere else in the world. All languages would be equally descended from the original one, and while language does evolve at different rates in different cultures what reason would we have for supposing it would evolve more slowly in its place of origin?Probably some proto-proto-proto (etc.) Semitic language, if we assume that Eden was in the Fertile Crescent area or some other part of the Middle East. Since writing is a “recent” human invention (within the last thousands of years) my guess is that Adam and Eve were big on oral tradition (as the Israelites and other Middle Eastern peoples are).
Or, if Adam and Eve were created in Africa, probably an early, obscure African language (African cultures are big on oral tradition too).
I’m not too educated about the science of linguistics and the history of human language. But from what I understand, whatever language Adam and Eve spoke, it could have either been a language that was pidgin-like (simple, lacking modern syntax) or creole-like (a step above pidgin), or possibly neither. For them both to speak a creole-like language, they would have had to “nativize” whatever language their parents spoke (in this case, God).Whether Eden was in Africa, the Middle East, or elsewhere, the language(s) now spoken in that region would be no closer to the original human language than any other language anywhere else in the world. All languages would be equally descended from the original one, and while language does evolve at different rates in different cultures what reason would we have for supposing it would evolve more slowly in its place of origin?
For a modern example of the concept, consider how American English is in many respects actually closer to 17th century English than the English of modern England. Same story with the French spoken in Quebec compared to that spoken in France.
First, the first humans (adam is actually a ungendered noun, not a proper name, that refers to the human first created without sexual differentiation in Genesis 2 (Gen 1:26 refers to “adam” in a generic sense of “human beings” or “humankind”). As such, the story cannot be placed in a historical time and place with any accuracy. The story of Genesis 2-3 is figurative, so should not be confused with history, although it speaks of the theological truth that is also historical – that we are created intentionally and in relationship with one another by a loving God.
There are actually at least three creation stories in Genesis and a fourth in the Book of Revelation.I’m not aware of two different creation stories on Genesis.
I suppose everyone has their own point of view. As for me, I see one creation account. What you call a ‘second creation account’, I see as an explanation of how Man was created male and female on the sixth day. I see nothing in it that would make it different from the first or contradict what is said in the first.Genesis 1:1 to 2:3 is the first creation account, a six day creation - light and dark, firmament, heaven and earth, the sea separated from dry land, plants, fish and animals. Man is created last.
The second creation account is in Genesis 2:4 to 2:25. Here man is created first, before the animals. God forms man out of the clay, blows the breath of life into his nostrils. creates the animals which are not suitable as a helpmate and then creates woman from man’s rib.
In Genesis 1 man is created last, after the animals.I suppose everyone has their own point of view. As for me, I see one creation account. What you call a ‘second creation account’, I see as an explanation of how Man was created male and female on the sixth day. I see nothing in it that would make it different from the first or contradict what is said in the first.
But that’s just me.![]()