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mdgspencer
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There were several languages used in Jesus’ time and place, but the people then spoke in Aramaic, this article explains.
To some extent, I think. A question like ‘what language did Jesus speak’ is a bit misleading in some respects, because 1st century AD Roman Palestine was very multilingual and so everyone probably spoke a little bit of everything. The only sure consensus of modern scholarship is that Aramaic was, by far, the day-to-day vernacular and the lingua franca amongst indigenous peoples. Hebrew was likely dominant in liturgical use, either in private or in the Temple. Greek was likely dominant in civil and legal administrative use. But there was probably a high degree of overlapping language use. The Oxford Handbook of Roman Palestine, for example, notes that some liturgical texts for Temple usage have Greek translations for responses, evidently for visitors who are not fluent in Hebrew (probably Alexandrian Jews who were very Hellenised).would have been at least to a certain extent familiar to them
A point many theologians have made throughout history.Surely as God incarnate Jesus could speak all languages.
Hmm… that doesn’t stand to reason. You’re saying that, when Aramaic conversations were happening, they quoted Hebrew versions of the OT, but when the Evangelists were writing down those conversations, they went over and quoted a different version of the OT, just because it was in Greek?More correctly, the Septuagint is the version that the Gospels refer to, since the Gospels were written in greek
I’ve always heard it said that the Septuagint was the version used in Galilee (and the diaspora).Common people in Palestine probably had more knowledge of the masoretic text, since that was used in the Synagogues.
The Bible tells us that, as He grew up, Jesus was filled with wisdom. He grew up like any other human. It also says that “though [Jesus] was in the form of God, did not regard equality with God something to be grasped. Rather, he emptied himself, taking the form of a slave, coming in human likeness; and found human in appearance, he humbled himself.”Surely as God incarnate Jesus could speak all languages.
That’s not the question, though. If you interviewed me in Spanish, and I quoted a Hebrew text, and then you wrote your book in English, would you translate the quote yourself into English or would you go looking for an English translation of the Hebrew quote and grab it from there? Keep in mind that we’re talking Scripture, not just Bridget Jones’ Diary – the quote is the inspired word of God, so getting it right is important! Inasmuch as there are differences in phraseology between the Masoretic and Septuagint, then if the quotation was given from the Hebrew, don’t you think that the Evangelist would preserve the phrasing as it was spoken in context? But… it wasn’t! Therefore, that would seem to indicate that it was spoken in Greek… no?If I interviewed you in, say Spanish, but was writing a book in English, I would write out the quote in English even if you said ”he quoted genesis” in Spanish.
You just ruined one of my favorite movies.So… no. Not as such.
The Masoretic Text was put together later on (7th century). The Dead Sea Scrolls have more common with the Septuagint than with the Masoretic Text which supports that all the OT books in the Catholic canon were being used by Jews in the 1st century.Common people in Palestine probably had more knowledge of the masoretic text, since that was used in the Synagogues.
In the East, yes, although in the West Latin was widely spoken.Unless it was an official act of the Roman government (rather than the local client state like Israel or Galilee) then even Roman administrators would use Greek to communicate as it was the most widely spoken language in the Empire