T
TypesAndShadows
Guest
Sorry for the lack of clarity. They were taking the phrase from the Creed and ‘explaining’ it in exactly the same manner I have heard again and again from (mostly KJV-only) people who were particularly strongly claiming to be Sola Scriptura: as if the only available evidence was this particular English translation of the written work, and modern general English dictionaries that the individual has at home. No non-Creed evidence was to be admitted, no other written record providing context, no tradition: as if the Creed existed in English in a vacuum.Sola Scriptura…a latin phrase meaning the Scripture alone…to an English translation of the Nicene Creed. I am having one heck of a time wrapping my head around that…
What would you say are Sola Scriptura techniques?
So, they were treating this one English translation of the Latin Nicene Creed as if it was Scripture that interprets itself, as if any context or history or tradition was other people somehow disguising the true obvious meaning. It did not matter what evidence we have of the intent of the authors: that was not included in the Creed itself. If any evidence appeared to contradict what they thought that phrase meant, then it must be corrupt evidence. I never did find out why they thought the Creed was true, if they thought so many other things were corrupt.
At first, I even hoped they were satirising Sola Scriptura, until it became apparent they were serious.
