What, precisely, has been immorally commanded?

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So, what was the immoral act that HAD to be disobeyed?
Well, come on now. “immorally commanded” ?

"Let’s look for a phrase that describes something that literally didn’t happen, and dare someone to prove it did " :confused:

The introduction of the NO may have been well intended, but really, it was contrary to the will of the man who called the Council himself. I guess since John XXIII was dead, it made it easy to dismiss his will. He not only did not want revolutionary changes, he didn’t even want to hear of them discussed.
 
Well, come on now. “immorally commanded” ?

"Let’s look for a phrase that describes something that literally didn’t happen, and dare someone to prove it did " :confused:

The introduction of the NO may have been well intended, but really, it was contrary to the will of the man who called the Council himself. I guess since John XXIII was dead, it made it easy to dismiss his will. He not only did not want revolutionary changes, he didn’t even want to hear of them discussed.
Is the concept of an immoral command that confusing for you? One is morally justified in disobeying an immoral command. So, what was that command?

What was the immoral command that Lefevbre was obliged to disobey? The introduction of the new Mass can’t be it, because Lefevbre was not involved in the introduction. So, he was not asked in that regard to do anything immoral (or anything at all for that matter).
 
I’m out of time. Gotta go to work. I’ll answer later tonight.

I’m not defending anyone leaving the Church though.
 
ooops, forgot that part.

So, those quoted are wrong ? If the likes of them are wrong, where do we turn for our answers ?
Opinions are neither right nor wrong - and that is all those quotes amount to.
 
Why doesn’t it mean much ? These are the words of our Holy Father, whom I loved before I found those quotes, and who I still love and pray for.

And the words of the man who co-authored the NO.

Why don’t they mean much ? We all speak for the Church and love to quote those in the Hierarchy don’t we ?

It’s just very comforting for me to know that there are those in Rome who are aware of our concerns, and are speaking out, acknowledging there is a problem. A quite large problem.

It’s really hard to take those quotes out of context.
The terms make great headlines but are not objectively measurable for one thing.

We still have a Mass - that was not destroyed - previous missals were neither banned nor dismantled (though if one is making us of the ordinary form there is no need for other missals - as was true before and after Trent).
 
The terms make great headlines but are not objectively measurable for one thing.

We still have a Mass - that was not destroyed - previous missals were neither banned nor dismantled (though if one is making us of the ordinary form there is no need for other missals - as was true before and after Trent).
Then why did Cardinal Ratzinger use terms like “collapse of the Liturgy” and “Liturgical ruins” in describing the post-conciliar period?
 
So now you do believe that some traditionalists have disobeyed the law?
What do you mean “now?” Did I not cite Archbishop LeFebvre and the 1988 consecrations in my first post? You keep talking about “these groups” yet you refuse to identify them.
After all, you just got done challenging me to prove that disobedience has occurred.
You keep claiming there are “these groups” the burden of proof on your part is to name them. You claim you are not talking about the SSPX. Yet they are a perfect example of a group punished for not obeying an immoral command.
Since you claim no disobedience did occur, then it would hardly seem necessary to debate about when one is justified in disobeying the law.
I said I couldn’t see any disobedience from what was described on the thread so far.

The need to discuss the justification for disobeying a law in a particular situation was necessary because you claim you are precluded from investigating that particular situation because of a canon law that you haven’t cited.
If you don’t think anyone has disobeyed any law whatsoever, then why are you pointing me to Thomas on justified disobedience?
To ask you how your explanation regarding LeFebvre is not contradictory to St. Thomas.’ You said you wanted to keep thing “general” so, I obliged by starting with basic principals.
I’m not saying all conclusion must be based on law and not reason. Rather, I’m saying that you’ve placed the burden of proof in exactly the opposite spot done by the law of the Church. The law says that if the disobedient act is public we must presume its imputability. Presume doesn’t mean “exclude any possibility of the presumption being overturned,” but it does mean “the burden of proof is on the challenger to overturn the assumption.”
So, are you willing to engage in a discussion on the entire situation in which archbishop LeFebvre found himself from a perspective of moral action? Your previous posts indicated that you didn’t want to go there. (ie. right to the answer you say you are looking for.)
The metaphor of a gate is great. The soldiers at the gate are not required to reflect every time someone comes to the gate and say “can I find sufficient grounds for keeping the gate closed in this particular case?” Rather, they are to obey the ordinarily just order and, when they become suspicious that in this particular case it is unjust, then they ask themselves whether there are sufficient grounds to countermand the order.
No. You mean disobey. Countermand would be an order reversing a previous one. One doesn’t have the power to reverse a superior.

Let’s apply the same analogy as Aquinas to LeFebvre.
A bishop is not ordinarily required to reflect on the requirement for a papal mandate in consecrating bishops. He ordinarily obeys but when he becomes suspicious that in this particular case it is unjust, he has to ask himself whether there are sufficient grounds to disobey the order.
I haven’t disqualified any of your swans because you’ve refused to produce them, claiming yourself that, in this case, black swans do not even exist.
I certainly have. You just refuse to admit it. When I mention the SSPX you don’t want to address them because canonically you claim you are forbidden. When I point out the Crisis in the Church that is manifest in virtually every diocese in the world, you accuse me of being vague.

Yet you claim you are looking for “something” that “they” disobeyed."

The Black Swans:

The trial of Formosus is one and the case of Archbishop LeFebvre is another.

In post #15 you even admitted it.
Well, I’d like to keep things on a more general level, since the SSPX is not the only group out there, but in their particular case, every single priest of the SSPX violates his suspension a divinis every time he celebrates Mass.
I know, then, that they “challenge” their suspensions, but the question returns to: “what were you ordered to do that you could not morally do, thus necessitating doing something that would, in its substance, get you suspended.”** Doing something** to get yourself suspended does, after all, usually entail some sort of disobedience./QUOTE]
This was answered in post #20 by me:
The answer is plainly: Doing what was done licitly for centuries as a means of sanctifying and saving souls. Living the Catholic life in its fullness.
The reality is, that there was an effort to bury every external sign and many doctrinal teachings that were uniquely Catholic.
To promote the Rosary and Devotions.
Eucharistic Processions
The use of Latin.
The use of a rite of Mass that was licit to use.
Promotion of disciplines that had been used before Vatican II and later loosened.
Teaching on the four last things.
There are many more… as you know.
It’s funny how you mention various “somethings” and then accuse me of being vague in your response to post 20.
 
I also wrote in post #14
"The next question is, have the local ordinaries been faithful shepherds at all times? When the Pope tells you (by implication) to obey a bishop that is disobedient to the Pope, what are you supposed to do? What if the Pope never corrects a bishop that is in error or disobedient?
Pope Benedict recently stated in Summorum Pontificum that the TLM was never abrogated. Well, what caused the caused the de facto abrogation of the TLM?"
You don’t seem to want to go there. I wonder why?
Now, we can do one of two things. Either we can agree that laws were disobeyed (in which case we can then go on to ask which of them were disobeyed and what justified that disobedience) or else we can disagree as to the mere existence of disobedience and drop the subject.
You mean you’ve gotten to my first post? You seem to indicate that there has been disobedience aside from LeFebvre who you don’t want to deal with. Again, who are those people you keep referring to and what were they disobeying? And how does that justified disobedience separate one from the Church?

You obviously don’t have a problem with disobeying when it is justified. So, why are you upset that traditionalists might speak a truism of the faith?
That’s an interesting question. I’d like to know what has been disobeyed. (Besides the 1988 consecrations of archbishop LeFebvre–they would need to be explained by the answer to the question of the larger crisis in the Church)
Many posters like to run around screaming “they reject the teachings of Vatican II!!!” and yet, those rejected teachings are never fully explained. Most of the time, they are “the Spirit of Vatican II” yet the defenders of them don’t even know that.
 
Those who claim anything was destroyed are wrong and those who claim any of it was immoral are dead wrong.
“Dead wrong”?? --drama much?

That term has no meaning apart from its dramatics.

Are abuses immoral? Just curious if you think so.
 
Then why did Cardinal Ratzinger use terms like “collapse of the Liturgy” and “Liturgical ruins” in describing the post-conciliar period?
Does he repeat these since becoming Pope?

What is he doing making the missal ‘responsible’ for all wrongs in the Church the OF if he believed anything like that today?

Did he/does he define exactly what is meant by those phrases and how they are measured objectively?

For all you or I know he regrets using those terms.
 
And, then we see technique number 2: “Post 6 times in a row with lots of information, re-hashing, self-references, and attempts to divert the original topic of the thread.”

It’s like they have a playbook on avoiding the tough questions.
 
Maybe this one got missed.👍

Quote:
Originally Posted by GerardP
Are you asking for an ex cathedra statement that is somehow immoral?
If you mean ex cathedra as in something like the Immaculate Conception then nope.

I’m not Andreas but I’d be happy if someone could point out a document 1) directly from the one of the last 2 Holy Fathers (since these were the 2 the SSPX was dealing with) or 2)from VII which the SSPX also have contentions with. From these three sources, where are the things which must be disobeyed because they are immoral or contrary to Tradition? In other words instead of the vague statement “I cannot obey that which is immoral, sinful or contrary to Tradition” how about a list of what that actually is?
Like Andras has said, you must think something has been commanded because this same statement repeatedly comes up.
 
And, then we see technique number 2: “Post 6 times in a row with lots of information, re-hashing, self-references, and attempts to divert the original topic of the thread.”

It’s like they have a playbook on avoiding the tough questions.
Speaking of playbook, as this conversation was unfolding, my girlfriend (one who is quite familiar with the topic) said some thing to the effect of "You know the question will never be answered and the next thing you will hear is that they will have to work, spend time with their children or go do something pious. Very timely.😉
 
Maybe because the rules of the board have changed?
Really? The new rules say something about not telling what immoral commands need to be disobeyed? I missed that one. :rolleyes:

People need to stop pawning this one off on everything under the sun and answer the question honestly. I half expect “the dog ate my homework” to be the next excuse. If you’re not going to answer it, why participate in the thread in the first place.
 
Really? The new rules say something about not telling what immoral commands need to be disobeyed? I missed that one. :rolleyes:
The question was where did the pro-SSPX people go or something to that effect.

My immediate reaction to the OP question was “Roe vs Wade.” I guess I missed the part where Lefebvre’s actions hold the #1 disobedience card.
 
The question was where did the pro-SSPX people go or something to that effect.

My immediate reaction to the OP question was “Roe vs Wade.” I guess I missed the part where Lefebvre’s actions hold the #1 disobedience card.
Well, you missed something. Nobody actually mentioned Lefebvre although this does have to do with the fact that the “we can’t obey and immoral, sinful or contrary to Tradition command” that is usually given by SSPX supporters. I’m also not sure how Roe vs. Wade fits in because it had nothing to do with a pope commanding and immoral act. Here’s the original query yet again.
My question is, though, what has this pope, Benedict, or previous popes commanded that
  1. is immoral and thus must be disobeyed and
  2. has been placed as a condition of communion such that maintaining full communion with the Holy See is impossible while disobeying this order?
 
Where did all the pro-SSPX traditionalists go?

Boy, it got quiet in here.

Crickets.

."
The SSPX takes issue with the Church on the teaching of Religious Liberty and false Ecumenism. It has a serious problem with the Prayer Day at Assisi as well as the New Mass. I am not up to date on everything about the SSPX, since I am not one of them, however I don’t know that they use the word "immoral " to describe Religious Liberty, Ecumenism etc.
It would be difficult for a supporter of the SSPX to respond to the thread because of the use of the word “immoral”.
Please provide a link to an official SSPX use of the word “immoral”. It may exist but I haven’t seen it.
 
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