What was the last infallible statement by a pope?

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FormerXCatholic

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I have been under the impression that papal infallibility was exercised frequently by our Holy Fathers. Now I am beginning to hear that papal infallibility hasn’t been exercised for a long time. So, my question is, what was the last infallible statement by a pope?

Thanks~
 
FormerXCatholic said:
I have been under the impression that papal infallibility was exercised frequently by our Holy Fathers. Now I am beginning to hear that papal infallibility hasn’t been exercised for a long time. So, my question is, what was the last infallible statement by a pope?

Thanks~
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The last infallible statement made by the pope and indeed the first and only after the First Vatican Council, when papal infallibility was declared was when Pius XII declared the Assumption of Mary in 1950 with his document ‘Munificentissimus Deus’.

Papal decrees were rarely exercised before 1870. There are a few examples of it, though…
 
StBenedictLabre said:
The last infallible statement made by the pope and indeed the first and only after the First Vatican Council, when papal infallibility was declared was when Pius XII declared the Assumption of Mary in 1950 with his document ‘Munificentissimus Deus’.

Papal decrees were rarely exercised before 1870. There are a few examples of it, though…
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What about ORDINATIO SACERDOTALIS OF JOHN PAUL II from 1994?

" ORDINATIO SACERDOTALIS: AN EXERCISE OF INFALLIBILITY"

“I have been astonished over the past few days at how many commentators, including Catholics widely known for their orthodoxy, have hastened to state that the Pope’s recent Apostolic Letter, “Ordinatio Sacerdotalis”, is not infallible.** In fact, it is a textbook case of infallibility in action.**”
ewtn.com/library/ISSUES/ORDIN.TXT
 
StBenedictLabre said:
The last infallible statement made by the pope and indeed the first and only after the First Vatican Council, when papal infallibility was declared was when Pius XII declared the Assumption of Mary in 1950 with his document ‘Munificentissimus Deus’.

Papal decrees were rarely exercised before 1870. There are a few examples of it, though…
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Some would argue that St. John Paul II’s declaration that the Church has no authority to ordain women also meets the criteria for an infallible statement.
 
alwayswill said:
What about ORDINATIO SACERDOTALIS OF JOHN PAUL II from 1994?

" ORDINATIO SACERDOTALIS: AN EXERCISE OF INFALLIBILITY"

“I have been astonished over the past few days at how many commentators, including Catholics widely known for their orthodoxy, have hastened to state that the Pope’s recent Apostolic Letter, “Ordinatio Sacerdotalis”, is not infallible.** In fact, it is a textbook case of infallibility in action.**”
ewtn.com/library/ISSUES/ORDIN.TXT
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What about it? Please elaborate.
 
FormerXCatholic said:
What about it? Please elaborate.
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Is Ordinatio Sacerdotalis from 1994 an ** infallible** doctrine or not?

"When John Paul II ruled out the ordination of women in Ordinatio sacerdotalis, he used the expression “definitive,” but did not use the formula that would signal an infallible teaching; in fact the word “infallible” doesn’t appear anywhere in the document. (These documents are carefully crafted. “Infallible is missing for a reason.) Cardinal Ratzinger, as prefect for the Congregation for the doctrine of the Faith, argued in a response to a question about Ordinatio sacerdotalis that the teaching was part of the “deposit of faith” and therefore an infallible teaching of the “ordinary and universal magisterium”–although he knows full well that’s not how infalliblility works; something can’t be declared infallible by a Vatican office. Canonists and theologians the world over argued that** the teaching was not infallible for a variety of reasons. -**”
uscatholic.org/blog/2011/05/infallible-teaching-womens-ordination

I have been astonished over the past few days at how many commentators, including Catholics widely known for their orthodoxy, have hastened to state that the Pope’s recent Apostolic Letter, “Ordinatio Sacerdotalis”, is not infallible. In fact, it is a textbook case of infallibility in action.

ewtn.com/library/ISSUES/ORDIN.TXT
 
According to Wikipedia, “Ordinatio Sacerdotalis was not issued under the extraordinary papal magisterium as an ex cathedra statement, and is so not considered infallible in itself”

Ordinatio Sacerdotalis is not an infallible teaching because it does not define a teaching relating to faith or morals…
 
I didn’t realize that things like this were open to opinions. Papal Infallibility after Vat 1 isn’t about faith or morals either yet I still accept it. US-catholic is a more heterodox leaning publication so I can see why they would disagree. Why wouldn’t someone approach Pope John Paul 2 and ask him directly if the statement was ex cathdra instead of leaving us with all this confusion? :confused:
 
StBenedictLabre said:
According to Wikipedia, “Ordinatio Sacerdotalis was not issued under the extraordinary papal magisterium as an ex cathedra statement, and is so not considered infallible in itself”

Ordinatio Sacerdotalis is not an infallible teaching because it does not define a teaching relating to faith or morals…
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Well that seems to be confusing:

didn’t Joseph Card. Ratzinger actually state Ordination Sacerdotalis was infallible?

jimmyakin.com/library/womens-ordination-its-infallible
 
StBenedictLabre said:
According to Wikipedia, “Ordinatio Sacerdotalis was not issued under the extraordinary papal magisterium as an ex cathedra statement, and is so not considered infallible in itself”

Ordinatio Sacerdotalis is not an infallible teaching because it does not define a teaching relating to faith or morals…
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Yes, it refers to faith - the sacrament.
It is not defined under the extraordinary magisterium, like the Assumption was. It is defined under the Ordinary Magisterium, and infallible.
 
FormerXCatholic said:
I didn’t realize that things like this were open to opinions. Papal Infallibility after Vat 1 isn’t about faith or morals either yet I still accept it. US-catholic is a more heterodox leaning publication so I can see why they would disagree. Why wouldn’t someone approach Pope John Paul 2 and ask him directly if the statement was ex cathdra instead of leaving us with all this confusion? :confused:
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I agree: this should be clear: Crystal clear
 
commenter said:
Yes, it refers to faith - the sacrament.
It is not defined under the extraordinary magisterium, like the Assumption was. It is defined under the Ordinary Magisterium, and infallible.
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Defining something under the extraordinary magisterium is how something becomes officially infallible. Yes, Ordinatio Sacerdotalis is said to be infallible but it has not been formally declared so as if it was it would have been declared by the extraordinary magisterium. John Paul II said it is an infallible document and I don’t contest that but then surely if it is really infallible it would be as such under the extraordinary magisterium.
 
commenter said:
Yes, it refers to faith - the sacrament.
It is not defined under the extraordinary magisterium, like the Assumption was. It is defined under the Ordinary Magisterium, and infallible.
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EWTN
Jimmy Akin
Michael Voris
Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger

Say that it is infallible
 
commenter said:
Yes, it refers to faith - the sacrament.
It is not defined under the extraordinary magisterium, like the Assumption was. It is defined under the Ordinary Magisterium, and infallible.
Click to expand...
But that’s not how declaring infallibility works…
 
alwayswill said:
EWTN
Jimmy Akin
Michael Voris
Cardinal Joseph Ratzinger

Say that it is infallible
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I could be wrong as I’m only a layman and certainly no theologian. It does seem to be infallible as it is declared by the Congregation for the doctrine of the Faith to be so under the ordinary magisterium and I believe it should be. Women simply cannot be priests. That’s common sense. According to what I’ve read though it was not properly or officially declared to be infallible though as it the normal process for doing so under the extraordinary magisterium and this is why we are having this discussion.
 
StBenedictLabre said:
I could be wrong as I’m only a layman and certainly no theologian. It does seem to be infallible as it is declared by the Congregation for the doctrine of the Faith to be so under the ordinary magisterium and I believe it should be. Women simply cannot be priests. That’s common sense. According to what I’ve read though it was not properly or officially declared to be infallible though as it the normal process for doing so under the extraordinary magisterium and this is why we are having this discussion.
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Guess what?

Even though I just provided a half a dozen “experts” saying it is infallible:
I can also provide another set of "experts: saying it is not infallible:

The elephant in the room is: How can this not be known?
 
alwayswill said:
Guess what?

Even though I just provided a half a dozen “experts” saying it is infallible:
I can also provide another set of "experts: saying it is not infallible:

The elephant in the room is: How can this not be known?
Click to expand...
Some persons dissent from the Magisterium. It doesn’t really matter if they are lauded by the media as an “expert”.
 
alwayswill said:
from the Vatican website:

vatican.va/roman_curia/congregations/cfaith/documents/rc_con_cfaith_doc_19951028_dubium-ordinatio-sac_en.html

This teaching requires definitive assent, since, founded on the written Word of God, and from the beginning constantly preserved and applied in the Tradition of the Church,** it has been set forth infallibly** by the ordinary and universal Magisterium
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I am aware the document fulfills the requirements for papal infallibility. And I think it should be. But it’s not as simple as that and this has been a question that has been asked from day one about the document. According to the German Bishop’s Conference in settling this issue, they said that JPII was not "citing formally the apostolic power but exercising fully his mission while citing Holy Writ. Evidently there was reluctance to establish this doctrinal decision within the innermost sphere of divine revelation, however it was viewed as being within a closely related sphere. The decision should not be viewed as an infallible doctrinal pronouncement, but surely a form of expression was chosen within the ordinary magisterium of the Pope which excludes materially divergent opinions”

This is how I see it too, although I will stand corrected if I’m wrong…
 
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