T
TheSeeker2014
Guest
good point!The angel called Mary “full of grace” BEFORE she said yes to being the Mother of God.
Ergo, her sinlessness was not attached to or dependent upon or caused by her acceptance of God’s will to be His Mother.
I think I get it… the back in time coverage that I was describing that you are now talking about reached back at conception rather than acceptance. Not only does she have to be Sinless to carry… but Sinless in preparation too. (life leading up to acceptance) so she can accept (has the ability).You’re not over-thinking it, but your thinking is a bit flawed.
Because Mary was to be the Mother of the Redeemer, he preserved her from all stain of original sin at the moment of her conception in her mother’s womb. This is call the Immaculate Conception. It didn’t require Mary’s mother, St. Anne to have been sinless for God to accomplish it.
I think it’s how God preserved Mary from original sin is where you are stumped, yes?
Jesus’ redemption is effective in the past, the present, and the future. Mary was redeemed/preserved free from original sin at the moment of her conception through her Son’s redemption on the cross–because she was to be the Second Eve whose “Fiat” canceled Eve’s “No,” bringing into the world the Second Adam. God is not bound by time or space to do his will.
Mary was a free agent, all the same. She could have told God no, and she could have sinned, but she didn’t because she gave herself to God in all things. She is our model for holiness and faithfulness as another human being who did all she did in and through the power of the Holy Spirit.