D
dronald
Guest
So its rejection was mostly based on its lack of circulation probably? If the document does come out of the 1st century it could have been considered apostolic had it gained a wide circulation.We can pretty much guess what criteria was employed when deciding the books that were considered to be authoritative. I’ll name four of them here: (1) ‘apostolicity’, (2) ‘catholicity’, (3) ‘orthodoxy’, and (4) ‘public lection’. In other words, for a given book to be considered authoritative it should: (1) come from an apostolic tradition whereby direct or indirect apostolic contribution was evident (the gospels, for instance, are attributed to the apostles Matthew and John and to Mark and Luke, the disciples of Peter and Paul), (2) have a wide circulation and hold a major significance for believers everywhere, not only in a particular region or community (this disqualifies apocryphal literature and the gnostic gospels, many of which were specific only to a particular region or were used only by a single sect), (3) mirror the teachings and intentions of the apostles themselves (i.e. it should be in harmony with the Tradition of the Church), and (4) should have a place in the Liturgy (i.e. being read at Church).
I mean, what’s the difference between the Didache and Hebrews in terms of criteria besides wide circulation?