OK, here is what I am trying to say. For me, foreplay is always a part of intercourse, its preparing the bodies for the culmination, I mean even the definition of the dictionary says: “n. Sexual stimulation preceding intercourse.” (American Heritage Dictionary). Sure there may be some forms of affection that are used both in and out of it, and that would be correct for a married couple to use at any time (you know, unless it causes them to lust etc, but in general), while incorrect for an unmarried couple to use, but that does not seem like foreplay to me. Now, there is some activity appropriate to foreplay that I cannot see how it would be appropriate outside of it, even if the couple does comply with the two requirements you presented, 1. Not Climaxing 2. Being able to control themselves without the need to continue or temptation to masturbate.
I still think there is activity that would comply with the above but fall under lust or misuse of sexual pleasure, not due to the lack of control, but due to the higher level of sexual intensity being used outside the marital embrace. The catechism does say: “Sexual pleasure is morally disordered when sought for itself, isolated from its procreative and unitive purposes.” Without intercourse it cannot be procreative and unitive.