No doctrine is involved, but you’re doing serious mental gymnastics if you contend that the teaching of Pius IX doesn’t contradict the Second Vatican Council. Anyone who seriously examines his teaching sees the contradiction.
You know, I’m honestly not convinced of that. For starters, I’m happy we agree that this is not a doctrinal matter, but one that concerns the proper way for the Church to do her work in human society.
So, for one thing, no “contradiction” is possible. If the Roman Rite of the Catholic Church began ordaining married men, for example (which I would definitely
not agree with), that would be a disciplinary change, not a contradiction of principles.
And on a side note, the question concerning religious freedom is so closely embedded in the more general issue of how the Church is to operate within society that I can’t help but think that any answer is subjective and depends on changing circumstances,
because of the very nature of the issue.
So in all honesty, you and I may not actually disagree enough to make me feel justified in continuing this argument. If you simply don’t agree with the Catholic Church’s embrace of religious freedom (as opposed to claiming some kind of dogmatic contradiction), I see no reason to continue the argument; to hold that opinion obviously would not constitute dissent in any way.
Given your statement that
“No doctrine is involved,” would it be accurate to characterize your position as a mere disagreement with the
policies of the post-Vatican II Catholic Church? You’re not actually claiming that the post-Vatican II Catholic Church has compromised Sacred Tradition, are you?
Pius IX intended to convey exactly what he conveyed, which is that the Catholic state should be confessional and that other religions should be publically suppressed. This is the plain meaning of what he said, and there is absolutely no way to get around it.
Of course he intended to convey “that the Catholic state should be confessional and that other religions should be publicly suppressed,” just as you say. But leaving aside for the moment the fact that not every state is a Catholic state (which is a relevant factor here),
did he intend to mandate that policy for the Church until the end of time? I see nothing in the quotations you’ve provided that indicate that that is the case.
Oh, I wouldn’t think to deny that Blessed Pius IX would probably have said - if asked - that he could not *possibly * foresee societal circumstances which would justify the Church’s embrace of religious freedom, but - as I don’t think you’ll deny - it is the decisions he made binding and not his personal opinions that are authoritative.
Basically, I don’t at all deny that Pius IX rejected religious freedom and taught quite plainly “that the Catholic state should be confessional and that other religions should be publicly suppressed.”
But the Church’s decision in Dignitatis Humanae leaves little room for doubt regarding the answer to the question, "Was the Church’s rejection of religious freedom intended to be authoritatively irreversible?"
So I cannot honestly concede that this change constitutes a “contradiction” in any way.
I urge you to read Dignitatis Humanae. Here’s what’s probably the most relevant excerpt:
"Provided the just demands of public order are observed, religious communities rightfully claim freedom in order that they may govern themselves according to their own norms, honor the Supreme Being in public worship, assist their members in the practice of the religious life, strengthen them by instruction, and promote institutions in which they may join together for the purpose of ordering their own lives in accordance with their religious principles*…Religious communities also have the right not to be hindered in their public teaching and witness to their faith, whether by the spoken or by the written word.***" - Excerpt from Dignitatis Humanae
Could a plainer contradiction with previous Magisterial teaching be possible? Here, the document fully endorses the public practice and teaching of false religions. This isn’t a statement which says “under the present circumstances, it seems that this sort of tolerance is in order”. Instead, Dignitatis Humanae makes a positive assertion that false religions have* the right* to practice publicly. Any other reading is absurd.
You may find what I am about to say exasperating, but in the context of the entire document, I find it pretty clear that
Dignitatis Humanae is assuming that it will be applied only in the circumstances in which it was written.
Just look how the document begins:
A sense of the dignity of the human person has been impressing itself more and more deeply on the consciousness of contemporary man, and the demand is increasingly made that men should act on their own judgment, enjoying and making use of a responsible freedom, not driven by coercion but motivated by a sense of duty. - DIGNITATIS HUMANAE
That’s the very beginning of the document, and the tone it sets for the whole document conveys
unmistakably that these new standards are being applied
directly in light of different circumstances. Phrases like “has been impressing itself more and more deeply on the consciousness of
contemporary man (emphasis mine)” and “the demand is
increasingly made (emphasis mine)” couldn’t be clearer.
Heck, the comments about “responsible freedom” and being “motivated by a sense of duty” rather than being “driven by coercion” are a very well-written explanation of what makes religious freedom seem so necessary to the modern mind. By summarizing the attitudes that characterize modern society’s circumstances,
in the very beginning, no less, the document couldn’t make it any clearer that this change in Church policy is a direct result of different circumstances.
And it’s not just the beginning. Near the end, the document states the following:
ll nations are coming into even closer unity. Men of different cultures and religions are being brought together in closer relationships. There is a growing consciousness of the personal responsibility that every man has. All this is evident. Consequently, in order that relationships of peace and harmony be established and maintained within the whole of mankind, it is necessary that religious freedom be everywhere provided with an effective constitutional guarantee and that respect be shown for the high duty and right of man freely to lead his religious life in society. - DIGNITATIS HUMANAE, emphases mine
Yes, of course the document champions religious freedom as a human right that naturally follows from our creation in the Divine Image and Likeness. But it does so unmistakably in the context of the standards of our times.
Thus, the document
cannot be construed as a
rejection of previous Church policy.
The statement above from Dignitatis Humanae is mirrored in these condemned statements:
“Liberty of conscience and of worship is the proper right of every man…” (Pius IX, Quanta Cura)
“Liberty of conscience and of worship … should be proclaimed and asserted by law in every correctly established society …” (Pius IX, Quanta Cura).
As I explained above, I will simply give Blessed Pius IX the benefit of the doubt and assume that those assertions were not valid demands in the nineteenth century.
I mean, Pius IX once ruled over the Papal States; he had them when he became pope, but they were gone by the end of his papacy. I don’t think even the most modern-minded
orthodox Catholic would demand that contemporary American standards of religious freedom be forced upon every past society.
Some things don’t change - ever. Some things do. How the Church works within different societies -
and what she expects of each - differ from age to age. I have never seen the Church’s policy change on religious freedom as a “contradiction” **or ** as a rejection of past policy.