Whats wrong with Sola Scriptura.

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What do you mean by Sola Scriptura?
This is how i would define it:
The doctrine of sola scriptura, simply stated, is that the Scriptures and the Scriptures alone are sufficient to function as the regula fide, the “rule of faith” for the Church. All that one must believe to be a Christian is found in Scripture and in no other source. That which is not found in Scripture is not binding upon the Christian conscience.
The Bible claims to be the sole and sufficient rule of faith for the Christian Church. The Scriptures are not in need of any supplement. Their authority comes from their nature as God-breathed revelation. Their authority is not dependent upon man, Church or council. The Scriptures are self-consistent, self-interpreting, and self-authenticating.
 
Uncle Norbert;3244829]
Originally Posted by justasking4
The Bible claims to be the sole and sufficient rule of faith for the Christian Church.
Uncle Norbert
OK, I’ll bite…WHERE? If Christ gave us the Church, and the Church gave us the Bible…
The source of the Scriptures is not from the church but from God Himself. The church did not give us the Bible God did. He used the church to bring forth the canon of the NT. The church did not invent the canon nor the books of it.
 
That was a thorough definition of Sola Scriptura, justasking4. It seems to be consistent with what I’ve read it to mean – so I would accept that for my own understanding also.

There are some other definitions that we could add:

When we say “the Scriptures”, that leads to questions.
Are those the written editions of the Scriptures only?
In the original language only or in translation also?
 
Yes, God gave us the Scriptures, but God transmitted the scriptures through human means.

In your own case, and for all of us, we received the Scriptures from someone else – some other person.
 
That was a thorough definition of Sola Scriptura, justasking4. It seems to be consistent with what I’ve read it to mean – so I would accept that for my own understanding also.

There are some other definitions that we could add:

When we say “the Scriptures”, that leads to questions.
Are those the written editions of the Scriptures only?
In the original language only or in translation also?
Only the original authographs were inspired-inerrant. In our translations there are some scribal errors that have occurred over the centuries. I have no problem using translations.
 
Yes, God gave us the Scriptures, but God transmitted the scriptures through human means.

In your own case, and for all of us, we received the Scriptures from someone else – some other person.
True
 
Tell Me Please, Where Does It Say In The Lords Word, (THE HOLY BIBLE) That Anyone Should Pray To Mary Or That Mary Was Born Without Sin Or That She Remained A Virgin Forever or that she is in any way our co-redemptress?
PLEASE PRESENT SCRIPTURE THAT WILL TRUTHFULLY JUSTIFY ANY ANSWER GIVEN
 
Tell Me Please, Where Does It Say In The Lords Word, (THE HOLY BIBLE) That Anyone Should Pray To Mary Or That Mary Was Born Without Sin Or That She Remained A Virgin Forever or that she is in any way our co-redemptress?
PLEASE PRESENT SCRIPTURE THAT WILL TRUTHFULLY JUSTIFY ANY ANSWER GIVEN
This is just answered over and over and over and over and over and over and over and over…:hypno:
 
Tell Me Please, Where Does It Say In The Lords Word, (THE HOLY BIBLE) That Anyone Should Pray To Mary Or That Mary Was Born Without Sin Or That She Remained A Virgin Forever or that she is in any way our co-redemptress?
PLEASE PRESENT SCRIPTURE THAT WILL TRUTHFULLY JUSTIFY ANY ANSWER GIVEN
Jarvet, you are new … welcome to CAF …

PLEASE Search the Forums for threads that have covered this topic, then if you feel the need, start a new thread … do not hyjack this thread … Thanks for your cooperation …
 
Only the original authographs were inspired-inerrant. In our translations there are some scribal errors that have occurred over the centuries. I have no problem using translations.
Ok, I don’t want to get into the differences in translations too much (although it can be a problem) but basically only the original writings (which we don’t have) were inspired-inerrant, but accurate translations and transcriptions would still provide a foundation for Sola Scriptura.

So, from that starting point – we know what Sola Scriptura is, and we know what we mean by the Scriptures.

For Catholics, the Scriptures are inspired and inerrant. God provided them to the Church to preserve the teachings of Christ and the foundation of Christian belief.

But we would also believe that even if all the Scriptures had been destroyed in the early days of the Church (as they almost were by Roman authorities), that Christianity would still survive and retain the true teaching of Christ.

We start by noticing that the early Christian communities did not have a canonized New Testament, but they relied on oral tradition to preserve the Gospel stories taught by Christ. For them, the written word could not have been the sole authority.

It was the apostolic founders of the Churches (which still exist today) which provided the authority and the teachings – they eventually preserved and canonzed the Bible and gave it to future generations.

We trust their decisions because they were protected by God in the promise made by Christ to His Church.

This one of those arguments – the Bible cannot validate itself as being an inspired text. Some other authority has to tell us that the books are inspired.

Some will say “God tells us” that the books are inspired, but I don’t think that every believer reads all the texts and decides for himself if the books are inspired or not.

We trust the Church – through the Conciliar decisions on the canon of Scripture. That’s how we know which books are inspired.
 
.

Where in the bible are the words (faith alone) found together in the bible. Now that is next to eachother the words Faith alone.

It is there and I bet not one Sola Scriptura advovcate will tell me as it pops their bubble.
uhhhm! :rolleyes:
**James 2:24 **“SEE HOW A PERSON IS JUSTIFIED BY WORKS AND NOT BY FAITH ALONE
 
QUOTE=holdencaulfield;3216342

Whats wrong with Sola Scriptura? This doctrine was not introduced until the 16th century. Prior to that all the saints and early Christians never heard of such a doctrine teaching. Nothing wrong with Scriptura, its when you add Sola to the Scriptura that ancient Christians and Catholics have a problem with.To some early Christians never had a bible like the one we have in one complete compilation of books, so there was no such teaching of Sola Scriptura. How are those who cant read supposed to recieve redemption from scripture alone theology. I think that’s the problem with it.
 
reggieM;3247483]Ok, I don’t want to get into the differences in translations too much (although it can be a problem) but basically only the original writings (which we don’t have) were inspired-inerrant, but accurate translations and transcriptions would still provide a foundation for Sola Scriptura.
So, from that starting point – we know what Sola Scriptura is, and we know what we mean by the Scriptures.
For Catholics, the Scriptures are inspired and inerrant. God provided them to the Church to preserve the teachings of Christ and the foundation of Christian belief.
But we would also believe that even if all the Scriptures had been destroyed in the early days of the Church (as they almost were by Roman authorities), that Christianity would still survive and retain the true teaching of Christ.
We start by noticing that the early Christian communities did not have a canonized New Testament, but they relied on oral tradition to preserve the Gospel stories taught by Christ. For them, the written word could not have been the sole authority.
It was the apostolic founders of the Churches (which still exist today) which provided the authority and the teachings – they eventually preserved and canonzed the Bible and gave it to future generations.
We trust their decisions because they were protected by God in the promise made by Christ to His Church.
This one of those arguments – the Bible cannot validate itself as being an inspired text. Some other authority has to tell us that the books are inspired.
What were the reasons given by your authority that said these books are inspired?
Some will say “God tells us” that the books are inspired, but I don’t think that every believer reads all the texts and decides for himself if the books are inspired or not.
We trust the Church – through the Conciliar decisions on the canon of Scripture. That’s how we know which books are inspired
 
The source of the Scriptures is not from the church but from God Himself. The church did not give us the Bible God did. He used the church to bring forth the canon of the NT. The church did not invent the canon nor the books of it.
This is a little lopsided ja4.

20 First of all you must understand this, that no prophecy of scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation, 21 because no prophecy ever came by the impulse of man, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God. 2 Peter 1:20-2:1

Men were 'moved by the HS " and spoke from God. This is a cooperative effort. Those same men were the ones that Jesus entrusted with the gospel, and they faithfully passed on His teachings to their successors, who eventually canonized the NT. How did they know which books belonged? The once that correctly represented the Teachings that had been passed down. It is the HS working in and through people. You can’t leave people out of the equation.
 
Tell Me Please, Where Does It Say In The Lords Word, (THE HOLY BIBLE) That Anyone Should Pray To Mary Or That Mary Was Born Without Sin Or That She Remained A Virgin Forever or that she is in any way our co-redemptress?
PLEASE PRESENT SCRIPTURE THAT WILL TRUTHFULLY JUSTIFY ANY ANSWER GIVEN
You need to post this question over on the Mary thread. It is off topic here.
 
Originally Posted by justasking4
The source of the Scriptures is not from the church but from God Himself. The church did not give us the Bible God did. He used the church to bring forth the canon of the NT. The church did not invent the canon nor the books of it.

This is a little lopsided ja4.

20 First of all you must understand this, that no prophecy of scripture is a matter of one’s own interpretation, 21 because no prophecy ever came by the impulse of man, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God. 2 Peter 1:20-2:1

Men were 'moved by the HS " and spoke from God. This is a cooperative effort. Those same men were the ones that Jesus entrusted with the gospel, and they faithfully passed on His teachings to their successors, who eventually canonized the NT. How did they know which books belonged? The once that correctly represented the Teachings that had been passed down. It is the HS working in and through people. You can’t leave people out of the equation.
i wasn’t trying to give an exhaustive treatment of this but i do agree with what you added…👍
 
What were the reasons given by your authority that said these books are inspired?
The authorities that decided this were the successors of the Apostles (Irenaeus, Athanasius, Augustine, Cyprian, Damasus, Innocent I, Jerome and others) and the final authority of the Councils that set the Canon of Scripture (Hippo and Carthage).

The first criteria they used was whether those texts had been accepted universally since the earliest days of the Church. The Gospels and Epistles were delivered to churches by the original writers (the Apostles & St. Paul). Those were the inspired texts. But there were other texts delievered to the early Church which were totally orthodox but not inspired scripture.

The early Popes taught that the Church herself would finalize the canon of inspired scripture. The Church had to investigate many writings which people claimed to be inspired Gospels, etc, and through invoking the Holy Spirit, prayer and discussion – the Canon of Scripture was finally closed.

The early Fathers believed that Christ gave the authority to make these decisions to the Church He founded.
 
The authorities that decided this were the successors of the Apostles (Irenaeus, Athanasius, Augustine, Cyprian, Damasus, Innocent I, Jerome and others) and the final authority of the Councils that set the Canon of Scripture (Hippo and Carthage).

The first criteria they used was whether those texts had been accepted universally since the earliest days of the Church. The Gospels and Epistles were delivered to churches by the original writers (the Apostles & St. Paul). Those were the inspired texts. But there were other texts delievered to the early Church which were totally orthodox but not inspired scripture.

The early Popes taught that the Church herself would finalize the canon of inspired scripture. The Church had to investigate many writings which people claimed to be inspired Gospels, etc, and through invoking the Holy Spirit, prayer and discussion – the Canon of Scripture was finally closed.

The early Fathers believed that Christ gave the authority to make these decisions to the Church He founded.
So we agree then that the scriptures are inspired-inerrant?
We agree that at least 66 books are?

Are the scriptures an adequate foundation to base doctrine and practices on?
 
So we agree then that the scriptures are inspired-inerrant?
We agree that at least 66 books are?

Are the scriptures an adequate foundation to base doctrine and practices on?
No, we believe that 73 books are.
 
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