When can Catholics disagree?

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I hope this will be a quick question:

It is my understanding that all catholics must give the assent of faith to revealed dogma such as the Trinity, Hypostatic Union, Assumption, Ressurrection ect.
But when can a Catholic (if at all) say: “I don’t agree with that interpretation”?

For instance, it has been in the news lately that the Pope has interpretated a passage as not condemning the Jews for Christs death in his new book. Do all Catholics now have to agree with this?

Does the Church have an official interpretation for every passage of scripture?
 
I hope this will be a quick answer:
It is my understanding that all catholics must give the assent of faith to revealed dogma such as the Trinity, Hypostatic Union, Assumption, Ressurrection ect.
This is correct. These things have been dogmatically defined. The Church has spoken, if you will.
But when can a Catholic (if at all) say: “I don’t agree with that interpretation”?
Any time that the Church has not authoritatively declared a certain position right or wrong.
For instance, it has been in the news lately that the Pope has interpretated a passage as not condemning the Jews for Christs death in his new book. Do all Catholics now have to agree with this?
No. Catholics are free to disagree. The pope himself has acknowledged that these books are the work of himself as a private theologian. So they’re not even papal documents, in the sense that term is understood (meaning that they’re not encyclicals, or the like). In any case, they’re certainly not ex cathedra, and a Catholic may freely disagree with his interpretations.
Does the Church have an official interpretation for every passage of scripture?
No. There are only a handful of passages for which the Church says, “all Catholics must think that this verse means x.” Certain Catholic apologists have put that list together here (catholic-convert.com/documents/BibleVersesDefinedByChurch.doc). In any case, even when She does say that a particular passage means a certain thing, Catholics are free to think it *also *means other things. A passage can, and usually does, have more than one meaning or implication.

Most of the time, the Church says such-and-such teaching is true, and then cites to a number of passages supporting this point. Catholics are free to think that those are strong or weak Scriptural support, as long as they agree with the teaching in question.
 
To the previous poster, excellent answer. I might add that we can disagree with anything we want from the church. Obedience to her teachings, however, is a non-negotiable.

I might disagree with the church’s teaching on contraception. But if I follow the teaching anyway, even with a hardened heart, that is a form of imperfect contrition, which will still get me to heaven.

(BTW - I do not disagree with the church’s teaching on contraception. Just using it as an example).
 
Thanks, Belloc Fan and prstoessel.

So if the Church gathered a council and declared that x passage does not mean that the Jews are condemned for Christs death, then all Catholics would have to believe it? Would it be considered a revealed truth? I understand there is some difference between revealed truths - such as the trinity, and non-revealed ones, but I am not exactly sure what that would be.

What exactly do Catholics have to believe - is it limited to those things defined by a council? Can they for instance disagree with a papal encyclical? To what extent are encyclicals infallible?
What part do moral truths play as opposed to truths about the faith?
I guess what I am asking is - “what is considered ex cathedra?” Is there a list of official and non-offical doctrines?
 
I hope this will be a quick question:

It is my understanding that all catholics must give the assent of faith to revealed dogma such as the Trinity, Hypostatic Union, Assumption, Ressurrection ect.
But when can a Catholic (if at all) say: “I don’t agree with that interpretation”?

For instance, it has been in the news lately that the Pope has interpretated a passage as not condemning the Jews for Christs death in his new book. Do all Catholics now have to agree with this?

Does the Church have an official interpretation for every passage of scripture?
I believe I can say I dont agree with that interpretation as long as I dont understand it.But then its up to me to find through a priest,bible study,prayer or perhaps some other means to try to understand it.Im a allowed to disagree on any hundreds of different topics.when i dont find a satisfactory answer I accept the church’s teaching because I have nowhere else to look.
 
Thanks, Belloc Fan and prstoessel.

So if the Church gathered a council and declared that x passage does not mean that the Jews are condemned for Christs death, then all Catholics would have to believe it? Would it be considered a revealed truth? I understand there is some difference between revealed truths - such as the trinity, and non-revealed ones, but I am not exactly sure what that would be.

What exactly do Catholics have to believe - is it limited to those things defined by a council? Can they for instance disagree with a papal encyclical? To what extent are encyclicals infallible?
What part do moral truths play as opposed to truths about the faith?
I guess what I am asking is - “what is considered ex cathedra?” Is there a list of official and non-offical doctrines?
Hello again 😛

Benedict wrote about that in his new book coming out soon, here. “Benedict explains biblically and theologically why there is no basis in Scripture for the argument that the Jewish people as a whole were responsible for Jesus’ death.”

Vatican site has a good source for the rest of your concerns. Best start is the Catechism.
 
Just a quickie: What Benedict spoke of regarding the Jews (and that neither the Jewish people as a race, nor the entire Jewish population at the time of Christ’s sacrifice, were to be held, as a group, to be the ‘ones responsible’ for that death) is not something ‘new’ nor is it his ‘private opinion.’

Please read Pope Paul VI’s “Nostra Aetate” (1965).
 
After looking at the catechism as Trevor Stamm suggested, I found this:
891 “The Roman Pontiff, head of the college of bishops, enjoys this infallibility in virtue of his office, when, as supreme pastor and teacher of all the faithful - who confirms his brethren in the faith he proclaims by a definitive act a doctrine pertaining to faith or morals. . . . The infallibility promised to the Church is also present in the body of bishops when, together with Peter’s successor, they exercise the supreme Magisterium,” above all in an Ecumenical Council.418 When the Church through its supreme Magisterium proposes a doctrine "for belief as being divinely revealed,"419 and as the teaching of Christ, the definitions "must be adhered to with the obedience of faith."420 This infallibility extends as far as the deposit of divine Revelation itself.421
Divine assistance is also given to the successors of the apostles, teaching in communion with the successor of Peter, and, in a particular way, to the bishop of Rome, pastor of the whole Church, when, without arriving at an infallible definition and without pronouncing in a “definitive manner,” they propose in the exercise of the ordinary Magisterium a teaching that leads to better understanding of Revelation in matters of faith and morals. To this ordinary teaching the faithful "are to adhere to it with religious assent"422 which, though distinct from the assent of faith, is nonetheless an extension of it.
So it would seem that encyclicals are infallibile when they talk about faith and morals that were contained in the deposit of faith, aka were divinely revealed. On other matters, Catholics are required to give religious assent when it leads to a better understanding of the deposit of faith. I am guessing that on matters that do not concern the deposit of faith, catholics are free to form thier own private opinions, until such time as the church makes a definitive decision.

So, Pope Paul VI’s Nostra Aetate would mean that all catholics would give religious assent to the belief that the Jews were not responisble for Christs death. Correct?
 
wolfpup
What exactly do Catholics have to believe - is it limited to those things defined by a council? Can they for instance disagree with a papal encyclical? To what extent are encyclicals infallible? What part do moral truths play as opposed to truths about the faith?
I guess what I am asking is - “what is considered ex cathedra?”
Only what is defined on faith or morals by an Ecumenical Council confirmed by the Pope is infallible dogma or doctrine. Catholics must assent to ALL dogma and doctrine defined by a confirmed Ecumenical Council or from the Pope himself. See below for the three categories as defined by Ad Tuendam Fidem.

The Vatican I dogma on papal infallibility declares:
Vatican I (Pastor Aeternus, Chap 4, #9, an infallible dogma) is the basis for understanding papal infallibility.

“9. Therefore, faithfully adhering to the tradition received from the beginning of the Christian faith, to the glory of God our saviour, for the exaltation of the Catholic religion and for the salvation of the Christian people, with the approval of the Sacred Council, we teach and define as a divinely revealed dogma that when the Roman Pontiff speaks EX CATHEDRA, that is, when, in the exercise of his office as shepherd and teacher of all Christians, in virtue of his supreme apostolic authority, he defines a doctrine concerning faith or morals to be held by the whole Church, he possesses, by the divine assistance promised to him in blessed Peter, that infallibility which the divine Redeemer willed his Church to enjoy in defining doctrine concerning faith or morals. Therefore, such definitions of the Roman Pontiff are of themselves, and not by the consent of the Church, irreformable.”

Vatican II, reiterated the teaching of Vatican I on papal infallibility, and its documents are readily available [from the EWTN Library (http://www.ewtn.com/vlibrary/search.asp) or the Vatican Library].
Infallibility for dogmas or definitions by Bishops in an Ecumenical Council is dependant on the approval of the Pope.

For infallibility to be exercised the Pope must teach:
(a) ex cathedra (from the Chair of Peter), that is as Shepherd and Teacher of all Christians,
(b) speaking with Peter’s apostolic authority to the whole Church,
(c) defining a doctrine of faith and morals.

Therefore only dogmas or definitive doctrinal teaching are infallible, not arguments nor any other declarations outside of definitive statements.

The updated CCC #88 is complemented by Canon 750 #2 for a truth proposed definitively (definitive proponuntur) which must be firmly accepted and held. Ad Tuendam Fidem, John Paul II, Apostolic Letter (Motu Proprio = on his own authority), 1998].

Thus CCC #88 clearly combines exactly with Pope John Paul’s Motu Proprio Apostolic Letter Ad Tuendam Fidem, 1998 (ATF) which requires the assent of divine and Catholic faith to believe (credenda sunt) dogmas (a category one truth) (Canon #750.1).
A category two truth requires the assent of ecclesial faith, as a secondary truth, “proposed definitively” (definitive proponuntur) to be “firmly embraced and held” (now Canon 750.2). So both the dogmas and the infallible (definitive) doctrines that are secondary truths, require an assent of faith, though there is a distinction between theological faith and ecclesial faith.
The category 3 truths are non-definitive (non-infallible) and require intellectual assent (“loyal submission of the will and intellect”, *Lumen Gentium *25), not an assent of faith. [See the Explanatory Note on ATF by the Congregation for the Doctrine of the Faith].
Also, the 1983 revision of Canon Law replaced in Canon 749:3 “dogmatically (‘dogmatice’) declared or defined” with “infallibly defined”. This removes any occasion for equating “infallible” with “dogmatic”, an equation which unduly limits papal infallibility. Such a limitation is clearly not contained in the Vatican I dogma on papal infallibility.

With the 1997 update of the CCC, # 88 reads: “The Church’s Magisterium exercises the authority it holds from Christ to the fullest extent when it defines dogmas, that is, when it proposes truths contained in divine Revelation or having a necessary connection with them, in a form obliging the Christian people to an irrevocable adherence of faith, or also when it proposes in a definitive way, truths having a necessary connection with these.”

Answer by David Gregson of EWTN on Nov-22-2002:
“You are correct in stating that the Pope exercises his charism of infallibility not only in dogmatic definitions issued, ex cathedra, as divinely revealed (of which there have been only two), but also in doctrines definitively proposed by him, also ex cathedra, which would include canonizations (that they are in fact Saints, enjoying the Beatific Vision in heaven), moral teachings (such as contained in Humanae vitae), and other doctrines he has taught as necessarily connected with truths divinely revealed, such as that priestly ordination is reserved to men. Further details on levels of certainty with which the teachings of the Magisterium (either the Pope alone, or in company with his Bishops) may be found in Summary of Categories of Belief.”
 
So it would seem that encyclicals are infallibile when they talk about faith and morals that were contained in the deposit of faith, aka were divinely revealed. On other matters, Catholics are required to give religious assent when it leads to a better understanding of the deposit of faith. I am guessing that on matters that do not concern the deposit of faith, catholics are free to form thier own private opinions, until such time as the church makes a definitive decision.
That all sounds right. The Church’s authority extends over faith (those doctrines we must believe to be saved) and morals (what we have to do or not do to be saved). Even here, She is only infallible if it’s part of the faith revealed once for all to the Apostles, a.k.a., the Deposit of Faith. I can’t think of any time the Church would ever have cause to go beyond this under normal circumstances.
So, Pope Paul VI’s Nostra Aetate would mean that all catholics would give religious assent to the belief that the Jews were not responisble for Christs death. Correct?
In it, Pope Paul says: "True, the Jewish authorities and those who followed their lead pressed for the death of Christ; still, what happened in His passion cannot be charged against all the Jews, without distinction, then alive, nor against the Jews of today. " So if by “the Jews,” you mean that all Jews (either all Jews now, or then) were uniquely responsible for the Death of Christ, that’s false.

First-century Jews living in Rome, for example, who’d never heard of Christ were responsible for His Death only inasmuch as Jesus Christ willingly died for their salvation. That is, they’re responsible to the exact same extent and degree that you and I are responsible for His Death. Our individual sins lead to His need to die for us; His love for us as individuals lead is the source of His willingess to die for us.

So, Nostra Aetate clarifies the Church’s position; but all of this was true before Nostra Aetate. The pope didn’t (and couldn’t) just create the teaching.
 
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