M
mrsjennymulhall
Guest
Mark 7:18-20
New International Version (NIV)
18 “Are you so dull?” he asked. “Don’t you see that nothing that enters a person from the outside can defile them? 19 For it doesn’t go into their heart but into their stomach, and then out of the body.” (In saying this, Jesus declared all foods clean.)
Good morning!
This was my ‘quote for today’ on the ‘Jesus Daily’ app. As is my habit; I looked it up and found that this passage is difficult for Jewish people, as it looks like Jesus is putting aside the ban on unclean foods, like pork.
Looking at the different commentaries, one fellow on the judaismvschristianity site said that Christians believe that Jesus put aside the Mosaic law banning unclean foods at this point but also believe that Mosaic law was ultimately ended upon Jesus’ death. He said that this passage reflected Mark’s opinion; not Jesus’.
I must admit that this is news to me. I am learning a lot from my little app and my Ignatius Catholic Study Bible (thank you Fr. Serpa for recommending that book!!) but I’m not sure what to think of this passage in the light of what the Jewish commentator said. Is there a contradiction? I’m ashamed of my ignorance but would be delighted to read whatever anyone might say on the matter.
Thanking you in advance,
Jenny
New International Version (NIV)
18 “Are you so dull?” he asked. “Don’t you see that nothing that enters a person from the outside can defile them? 19 For it doesn’t go into their heart but into their stomach, and then out of the body.” (In saying this, Jesus declared all foods clean.)
Good morning!
This was my ‘quote for today’ on the ‘Jesus Daily’ app. As is my habit; I looked it up and found that this passage is difficult for Jewish people, as it looks like Jesus is putting aside the ban on unclean foods, like pork.
Looking at the different commentaries, one fellow on the judaismvschristianity site said that Christians believe that Jesus put aside the Mosaic law banning unclean foods at this point but also believe that Mosaic law was ultimately ended upon Jesus’ death. He said that this passage reflected Mark’s opinion; not Jesus’.
I must admit that this is news to me. I am learning a lot from my little app and my Ignatius Catholic Study Bible (thank you Fr. Serpa for recommending that book!!) but I’m not sure what to think of this passage in the light of what the Jewish commentator said. Is there a contradiction? I’m ashamed of my ignorance but would be delighted to read whatever anyone might say on the matter.
Thanking you in advance,
Jenny