M
MarcoPolo
Guest
I wrote this in another thread:…consider verse 11 when it says this was His “first sign” as a result of which those disciples believed. John 1:35ff is when Jesus calls His disciples, but this may not necessarily be considered His “public ministry.” The Catechism says:
CCC#1613 On the threshold of his public life Jesus performs his first sign - at his mother’s request - during a wedding feast. The Church attaches great importance to Jesus’ presence at the wedding at Cana. She sees in it the confirmation of the goodness of marriage and the proclamation that thenceforth marriage will be an efficacious sign of Christ’s presence.*Paragraph 574 also seems to tie in his public ministry with signs to be seen by all. Make no mistake, it depends on how someone uses the term “public ministry.” Because even in John 1, those disciples recognized Him as the “Messiah” and “Lamb of God” prior to Cana. At Jesus’ baptism in the Jordan, He is also particularly revealed when the voice from heaven calls out. But again, was this particularly a “public” event? You see the idiosyncrasy? I think it depends on what should be considered “public.”
*What do you think? Is merely a matter of semantics? Is it fair to say it began when he first called his disciples? When baptized? Cana? Something else?