At the time, it was both. One may indeed argue that the topic was the kingship, but the wives and concubines were explicitly mentioned here. I don’t think anybody can argue that God disapproved of polygamy in the OT, when pretty much every single prophet and leader that He spoke to had more than one wife. It would have been very simple for Him, for instance, to tell Abraham (and Isaac, and everybody else) to stop it. He certainly gave plenty of other instructions that the folks back then had a tough time swallowing. What’s this one?
But then He came right out and used polygyny as an illustration of the transfer of the kingdom; one would think that the use of a problematic practice would not be a really good example of the transfer of a solid thing; rather like the cop telling the speeder “Of course I can give you a ticket for this! Didn’t I just let you get away with running the stop light?”
Doesn’t make sense.
Whether polygamy is acceptable NOW is the OP question: when was it, as a practice, specifically forbidden by God? A time…a declaration…something…that one can point to and say 'you could do it then and still be in good shape with God, but if you do it after this point, you are sinning?"
Well, as a Mormon I can tell you when it was.
In 1890, when Wilford Woodruff issued the 'Manifesto" saying that it was no longer to be practiced.
There was a whole bunch of resistance to it at the time, mind you, and there are quite a few breakaway Mormon sects that still practice it, but the quickest way to get excommunicated, if you are a member of the Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day saints, is to try it.
I MIGHT be willing to look at the NT verses about marriage, but even those still work if the man has more than one wife to 'cling to."
Just sayin’, is all, since y’all brought the Mormons into it.
I guess the point is, all during the OT (and among the NT Jews) polygamy was practiced. God did not ever, once, say that it was a sin and not to be practiced. He even used it…giving Saul’s wives over to David…as an example of the transfer of kingship. One generally does not use an illicit practice as an example of proving a licit one.
So…as the OP asks, when, precisely, did God say no, specifically? That is, if you aren’t going to use the Manifesto, and of course I do not expect you to do that.