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mackbrislawn
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Actually I was editing it but I took longer than 20 minutes. I didn’t realize you could erase it.Hi
no problem. But why didn’t you simply erase your post and then write it new again?
Or edit it?
Actually I was editing it but I took longer than 20 minutes. I didn’t realize you could erase it.Hi
no problem. But why didn’t you simply erase your post and then write it new again?
Or edit it?
Ever since Jesus gave His talk to the disciples about eating His body and drinking His blood. Jn 6: 51-70.Hi all. In a study group in my parish, we were discussing the Eucharist and how it has been believed to the be actual body, blood, soul and divinity of Jesus Christ throughout the history of the Catholic Church. Someone asked exactly when Protestants abandoned/reinterpreted that belief after the Reformation, and I actually had no idea.
I realize that there are differing views of the Eucharist/Lord’s Supper within the Protestant realm. But I’m wondering if any of you historical scholars can point me toward when a purely “symbolic” interpretation of the Eucharist started to develop, and maybe how it came about.
Thanks so much for your help!
The verse is John 6:66:Ever since Jesus gave His talk to the disciples about eating His body and drinking His blood. Jn 6: 51-70.
This is not new, it’s been this way all through the ages. It’s been a favorite target of Lucifer…the Real Presence of Jesus in the Eucharist.
I guess you’ll find “liberal theologians” in EVERY Church. Probably less in the Evangelical Protestant Churches.
Well, I even know of Catholic scholars that are “liberal”! My dad even had a professor when he was studying theology who was very liberal in the sense that he even started questioning if the Gospel really teaches what Jesus actually said and did. (He then resigned from the priesthood and then from the CC!)
51 thourgh 70 gives you the broader picture which clearly indicates that Jesus is not speaking of a symbol and is truly speaking of His blood and His body.The verse is John 6:66:
As a result of this, many (of) his disciples returned to their former way of life and no longer accompanied him.
Really? All the possible permutations? Interesting. Please direct me to the verses that discuss the permutation that involves transubstantiation. Now I wouldn’t expect that word to appear in the text, but if Christ provided all possible permutations and you think a real somatic presence is involved with one (or more) such permutation, then we should find something where Jesus described a manner of eating his flesh which saw the eater only able to sense bread and unable to sense flesh. Also, there should be mention that an entire body (not just a bit of flesh, not all of the flesh of a body, but the whole body) is eaten in one small bite…though of course the body is not actually bitten as it is present in such a manner that doesn’t allow the teeth of the chewer to actually interact physically with the flesh and or body of Christ. Jesus should have also clarified that his use of “gnaw” was inaccurate, b/c with a real somatic presence, his flesh isn’t actually gnawed.51 thourgh 70 gives you the broader picture which clearly indicates that Jesus is not speaking of a symbol and is truly speaking of His blood and His body.
In it He gives them all the possible permutations of the idea until it is unavoidable in their minds that this is not a symbol He is talking about.
Nope, I don’t. As I said, I don’t see any mention of a real somatic presence in John 6…nor do I see any mention by Christ that he will be instituting a ritual utilizing bread and wine. As such, I see no rejection by anyone (on that day) of a Eucharist involving a real somatic presence…such a possibility could not have even been envisioned that day as such an outlandish concept would not have registered on any one’s radar. I would expect that, at a minimum, Greek philosophy and a good number of decades would be required before one could come up with the idea of bread being converted to flesh and still appearing as bread…the average Jewish fisherman surely wouldn’t have considered such a possibility. As to 666, shouldn’t it be the 6th verse of the 6th chapter of the 6th book or possibly the 616th verse of the NT? BTW who instituted the chapter and verse divisions in the NT and why do you think they were inspired (so as to validate any 666 connection)?I just pointed out John 6:66 as it is the verse where the disciples abandon the Lord because they can’t believe in the Eucharist. Get it? 666.
Yeah, but they hardly were on the same page as to “how” they were the body and blood. As indicated, from what I have seen Augustine’s biographers (scholarly Catholics included) seem to be congregating around the “Augustine didn’t believe in a real bodily presence” position.* Further, you’ll have a heck of a time trying to establish that the likes of Tertullian, Cyprian, Origen and Clement of Alexandria believed in a real somatic presence…but since you brought up the ECFs, do you have any that held to your use of 666 with respect to John 6:66? You won’t be able to do that (given when chapter and verse divisions were introduced), but maybe you could produce one reputable modern Cathoilic scholar who has put forward that interpretation of the “666 meaning” for public review and consideration. I am curious as to whether such an animal actually exists.The Fathers of the Church all agreed that the Eucharist is the body and blood of Christ.
You fail to understand that these disciples - good disciples, wouldn’t just walk away from Him on a misunderstanding. how can this man give us of his flesh?] Not just what Jesus said but what was understood and what could not be mistaken.Really? All the possible permutations? Interesting. Please direct me to the verses that discuss the permutation that involves transubstantiation. Now I wouldn’t expect that word to appear in the text, but if Christ provided all possible permutations and you think a real somatic presence is involved with one (or more) such permutation, then we should find something where Jesus described a manner of eating his flesh which saw the eater only able to sense bread and unable to sense flesh. Also, there should be mention that an entire body (not just a bit of flesh, not all of the flesh of a body, but the whole body) is eaten in one small bite…though of course the body is not actually bitten as it is present in such a manner that doesn’t allow the teeth of the chewer to actually interact physically with the flesh and or body of Christ. Jesus should have also clarified that his use of “gnaw” was inaccurate, b/c with a real somatic presence, his flesh isn’t actually gnawed.
Some walked away from Christ that day, but I always thought that they couldn’t have possibly walked away from eating flesh by way of a real somatic presence, b/c from what I saw in that passage, I had always thought that such an idea had never been spelled out that day. Never saw a hint of it, in fact…Now you tell me that all permutations were covered…so please, which verses present the ideas set out in the paragraph above?
The 666 connection is incidental.Nope, I don’t. As I said, I don’t see any mention of a real somatic presence in John 6…nor do I see any mention by Christ that he will be instituting a ritual utilizing bread and wine. As such, I see no rejection by anyone (on that day) of a Eucharist involving a real somatic presence…such a possibility could not have even been envisioned that day as such an outlandish concept would not have registered on any one’s radar. I would expect that, at a minimum, Greek philosophy and a good number of decades would be required before one could come up with the idea of bread being converted to flesh and still appearing as bread…the average Jewish fisherman surely wouldn’t have considered such a possibility. As to 666, shouldn’t it be the 6th verse of the 6th chapter of the 6th book or possibly the 616th verse of the NT? BTW who instituted the chapter and verse divisions in the NT and why do you think they were inspired (so as to validate any 666 connection)?
Yeah, but they hardly were on the same page as to “how” they were the body and blood. As indicated, from what I have seen Augustine’s biographers (scholarly Catholics included) seem to be congregating around the “Augustine didn’t believe in a real bodily presence” position.* Further, you’ll have a heck of a time trying to establish that the likes of Tertullian, Cyprian, Origen and Clement of Alexandria believed in a real somatic presence…but since you brought up the ECFs, do you have any that held to your use of 666 with respect to John 6:66? You won’t be able to do that (given when chapter and verse divisions were introduced), but maybe you could produce one reputable modern Cathoilic scholar who has put forward that interpretation of the “666 meaning” for public review and consideration. I am curious as to whether such an animal actually exists.
- I am also curious as to whether Contarini would acknowledge this as a modern trend…perhaps it is outside of his area, but from what I have seen (and I haven’t done any polls or looked at all that many biographies), it seems to be the case.
It depends. Not a simple intellectual misunderstanding with no relationship to their faith, sure. But there seems to be a fairly strong theme in all the Gospels (see Mark 4/Matt. 13) that Jesus used deliberately cryptic, mysterious, and shocking language to drive away those whose motivations for following him were not the kind Jesus wanted. This may jar with contemporary sensibilities, but that may not be Jesus’ problemYou fail to understand that these disciples - good disciples, wouldn’t just walk away from Him on a misunderstanding.
Yes, but I think that modern scholars generally don’t consider that debate to be quite as important as Protestants looking for proto-Reformed Eucharistic theology have sometimes made it. Ratramnus’s position may not have been that different from Augustine’s–he wanted to speak in terms of sign and signified, but he may not have been denying the Real Presence in its Catholic sense. I think I may be relying on Jaroslav Pelikan here.Likely that was the reference.
But the debate between Ratramnus and Radbertus preceded Berengarius by +/- 200 years.
GKC
Yes, you are correct. It was about faith, faith in Jesus’ words. It was the way Jesus chose those words to kind of say, " hey guys, this is how it’s going to be in saecula saeculorum."It depends. Not a simple intellectual misunderstanding with no relationship to their faith, sure. But there seems to be a fairly strong theme in all the Gospels (see Mark 4/Matt. 13) that Jesus used deliberately cryptic, mysterious, and shocking language to drive away those whose motivations for following him were not the kind Jesus wanted. This may jar with contemporary sensibilities, but that may not be Jesus’ problem
I certainly don’t think they walked away because they couldn’t accept the Eucharist. I think something quite different is going on–probably that they wanted Jesus to provide endless free meals for his followers and were not interested in the mystical reality of which he was speaking.
Mind you, I think that that mystical reality does involve the Eucharist. But I don’t think the people who walked away had any concept of the Eucharist per se. The Eucharistic implications of John 6 are only clear in the context of the rest of Scripture and Christian tradition.
I find this to be one of the weakest talking points of contemporary Catholic apologetics. Any argument that takes the form “Jesus wouldn’t have done X” is highly suspect. It’s not always wrong to think this way–certainly Jesus wouldn’t do things that were actually immoral. But Jesus was not as “nice” or as predictable a person as we often want Him to be!
I’m relying on fallible memory, worn by age.Yes, but I think that modern scholars generally don’t consider that debate to be quite as important as Protestants looking for proto-Reformed Eucharistic theology have sometimes made it. Ratramnus’s position may not have been that different from Augustine’s–he wanted to speak in terms of sign and signified, but he may not have been denying the Real Presence in its Catholic sense. I think I may be relying on Jaroslav Pelikan here.
Hi all. In a study group in my parish, we were discussing the Eucharist and how it has been believed to the be actual body, blood, soul and divinity of Jesus Christ throughout the history of the Catholic Church. Someone asked exactly when Protestants abandoned/reinterpreted that belief after the Reformation, and I actually had no idea.
I realize that there are differing views of the Eucharist/Lord’s Supper within the Protestant realm. But I’m wondering if any of you historical scholars can point me toward when a purely “symbolic” interpretation of the Eucharist started to develop, and maybe how it came about.
Thanks so much for your help!
Contarini nailed it with his comment about there being “a fairly strong theme in all the Gospels (see Mark 4/Matt. 13) that Jesus used deliberately cryptic, mysterious, and shocking language to drive away those whose motivations for following him were not the kind Jesus wanted.” What he could have added was that in this particular instance Jesus’s language included a command that, if literally followed, would have necessitated sinning by way of cannibalism. Literally taken, it would be both vulgar and sinful.You fail to understand that these disciples - good disciples, wouldn’t just walk away from Him on a misunderstanding. how can this man give us of his flesh?] Not just what Jesus said but what was understood and what could not be mistaken.
Depends on how you would describe nice then I guess. I believe that Jesus was Quite predictable. He was always going to teach the truth.It depends. Not a simple intellectual misunderstanding with no relationship to their faith, sure. But there seems to be a fairly strong theme in all the Gospels (see Mark 4/Matt. 13) that Jesus used deliberately cryptic, mysterious, and shocking language to drive away those whose motivations for following him were not the kind Jesus wanted. This may jar with contemporary sensibilities, but that may not be Jesus’ problem
I certainly don’t think they walked away because they couldn’t accept the Eucharist. I think something quite different is going on–probably that they wanted Jesus to provide endless free meals for his followers and were not interested in the mystical reality of which he was speaking.
Mind you, I think that that mystical reality does involve the Eucharist. But I don’t think the people who walked away had any concept of the Eucharist per se. The Eucharistic implications of John 6 are only clear in the context of the rest of Scripture and Christian tradition.
I find this to be one of the weakest talking points of contemporary Catholic apologetics. Any argument that takes the form “Jesus wouldn’t have done X” is highly suspect. It’s not always wrong to think this way–certainly Jesus wouldn’t do things that were actually immoral. But Jesus was not as “nice” or as predictable a person as we often want Him to be!
That seems to contradict the idea that they understood Jesus and walked away anyway.Of course they had no concept of the Eucharist - neither did the apostles.
Are you saying that they didn’t want something like “limitless shrimp”? (obviously they wouldn’t want limitless shrimp, being Jews, but perhaps limitless tuna. . … ) What makes you so sure? Given the miracle they had just seen, isn’t this a quite likely interpretation?This had nothing to do with “limitless shrimp” like Red Lobster;
I believe this series of passages clearly and precisely addresses the true and real presence of Jesus in the Eucharist. I further believe it also shows that the message was clear in the minds of the listeners - not just the disciples but also the apostles who were probably just as confounded by what Jesus was saying but…the difference is, they didn’t leave, " [who will we go to Lord, you have the words of life".]
You seem to me to be switching back and forth between two incompatible positions:Its not like they said, " oh yeah, we get it". No, they didn’t get it. But instead of bailing out they stayed. Hard doctrine or otherwise, they stayed.