C
claymcdermott
Guest
My question is because I was always satisfied with the Thomistic answer that it ended with the death of John the Apostle - but my problem is that the Gospel of John seems to make itself fairly clear to me that it was not completed until after John died.
If the gospels are not public revelation, then we run into some problems.
Where does the era of public revelation end and private revelation begin? If it is with the death of the last of those whom Jesus commissioned to proclaim his word, then what reason do we have to believe that Jesus personally appointed people to proclaim his word who outlived John?
Or am I looking at this thing all wrong?
If the gospels are not public revelation, then we run into some problems.
Where does the era of public revelation end and private revelation begin? If it is with the death of the last of those whom Jesus commissioned to proclaim his word, then what reason do we have to believe that Jesus personally appointed people to proclaim his word who outlived John?
Or am I looking at this thing all wrong?