You tell me. And please show me where this was ever a Teaching of the Church. Now you claim that Edwin says that this is a Church teaching to persecute
and destroy heretics. Show me where this was a teaching of the Church.
Rinnie,
We’ve established that it’s not a teaching by your definition–but also that your definition is clearly circular, as your next sentence shows:
And remember the next sentence we have the promise any teaching of the Church is taught by God and will not error.
Exactly. Therefore you are obliged to define “teaching” to fit what you *now *believe to be true as a modern Catholic, no matter what the historical record shows that your spiritual ancestors believed.
I have several times cited a conciliar decree, a papal encyclical, and a theological explanation by one of the greatest Doctors of the Church (Aquinas), spanning a period of 300 years, and all saying that heretics should be persecuted. You and other Catholics are free to say that this doesn’t constitute “a teaching of the Church” by your definition. And those of us who are not in communion with Rome are free to say that this demonstrates your definition to be arbitrary and tailored to prove the claims of Catholicism. In other words, your Church can’t teach error because if it does you will later claim that the teaching wasn’t really a teaching of the Church. As others have pointed out, this is called the “no true Scotsman” fallacy. To anyone not already convinced of your Church’s claims, the fact that you have to resort to this kind of circular reasoning is quite a powerful argument against you.
Now please, if possible, let’s avoid all the irrelevant statements about how the bad behavior of Catholics doesn’t prove Catholicism wrong, about how Jesus can’t sin, etc., None of that is under dispute here.
So if this was a teaching of the Church why are there heretics today?
Because
a. Catholic governments did not always do their “duty” in wiping out heretics; and
b. In the sixteenth century many civil rulers decided to side with the “heretics”; and because
c. Persecution is often not 100% effective even when the government is totally on board with it.
You might as well ask why Christians survived the first few centuries, though frankly the Romans only began seriously persecuting Christians in the mid third century. Or you might ask why there are Catholics in England even though Catholics were viciously persecuted for about a century, and suffered serious disabilities for more than a century after that. Of course, in
those cases you will no doubt attribute the survival of the persecuted to the work of the Holy Spirit!
Why are we disobeying our Church and not destroying and persecuting them?
Because the Church’s teaching has changed.
A teaching never changes remember?
That’s what you say. But you support that claim by defining a “teaching” as anything that has not changed. It’s circular–the “no true Scotsman” fallacy again.
Popes and Councils have said things with every appearance of meaning them, and yet Catholics have later concluded that “the Church” really didn’t teach those things. That’s clear. What is open to debate is whether the distinction between a “real teaching” and what looks like a teaching at the time is purely arbitrary, or whether there are criteria that, say, medieval people could have used to tell that “the Church” really wasn’t telling them to persecute heretics. The only such criteria really are those laid down in Vatican I as a condition for infallible teaching. (You run into trouble with the question of the salvation of non-Catholics, because Unam Sanctam appears to meet those criteria and yet also appears to teach something Catholics no longer believe. But that’s another issue, and of course as always Catholic apologists have clever explanations!) With regard to the persecution issue, one can indeed say that since the precise language of Vatican I was never used (in Exsurge Domine, for instance), and since the relevant decree of IV Lateran was disciplinary, not doctrinal, therefore the claim that this wasn’t a “teaching of the Church” is not purely arbitrary. However, since these fine distinctions hadn’t been made in the Middle Ages, medieval people could not have known that “the Church” wasn’t really teaching what it appeared to be teaching. So as far as I’m concerned the distinction remains a subterfuge.
Bottom line: if late medieval Catholics
thought the Church was teaching that heretics should be persecuted (and there is no reasonable doubt that they did), then the claim that the Church wasn’t
really teaching these things is a claim that undercuts the position of Catholicism. The supposed authority and stability of Catholic teaching turns out to be a mirage. What the Church appears to be teaching now may be something that hundreds of years from now will turn out to be just the mistaken idea of popes and councils and theologians.