B
Bubba_Switzler
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Bishop Eusebius of Caesarea wrote sometime in the early 2C AD, citing Papias on the composition of the Gospel of Mark:
This is a remarkable passage which reads almost like modern historiography. It does not say that Mark is true because it is inspired Scripture, it says that Mark is true because it is based on eye witness testimony that was recorded more or less faithfully but with some artistic latitude.
So when did the Gospels come to be regarded as true because they were inspired Scripture?
catholic-resources.org/Bible/Eusebius_Gospels.htmThis also the presbyter said: Mark, having become the interpreter of Peter, wrote down accurately, though not indeed in order, whatsoever he remembered of the things done or said by Christ. For he neither heard the Lord nor followed him, but afterward, as I said, he followed Peter, who adapted his teaching to the needs of his hearers, but with no intention of giving a connected account of the Lord’s discourses, so that Mark committed no error while he thus wrote some things as he remembered them. For he was careful of one thing, not to omit any of the things which he had heard, and not to state any of them falsely.
This is a remarkable passage which reads almost like modern historiography. It does not say that Mark is true because it is inspired Scripture, it says that Mark is true because it is based on eye witness testimony that was recorded more or less faithfully but with some artistic latitude.
So when did the Gospels come to be regarded as true because they were inspired Scripture?