When did the tradition of priests not marrying start?

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Does anyone know when the tradition of priests not marrying started? I thought it started in the middle ages and had something to do with land rights. Any info would be greatly appreciated. šŸ™‚
 
Christ Himself maybe? And His Apostles who left their wives and followed Him, I would think.
 
Does anyone know when the tradition of priests not marrying started? I thought it started in the middle ages and had something to do with land rights. Any info would be greatly appreciated. šŸ™‚
I think that this was started by Constantine and has been practiced ever since… it is really a gift… it causes the men who become priests to become more dedicated to the priesthood… they do not have families to care for so they can greatly assist a parish almost 24/7… other when they need to rest so not to die over lack of sleep.

St. Paul remained celibate his entire life because God called him to that…

Priests cannot be married EVER, there has never been a time when priests could get married, but there are times when married men may be priests and some married men are priests today.

Those who are priests choose not to marry when they choose to follow God’s will for them and become priests… Though they are not allowed to marry… they still are choosing not to marry.

This is still sort of like brothers and monks… they could get married but they choose not to and according to their order’s rules, they cannot be married, but they choose to not marry in joining the order…
 
Does anyone know when the tradition of priests not marrying started? I thought it started in the middle ages and had something to do with land rights. Any info would be greatly appreciated. šŸ™‚
The Western Church started to mandate that priests be celibate sometime around the fourth century I think.

Priests have never been able to marry.

The Eastern Churches have always had a tradition of ordaining married men to the secular priesthood.
Christ Himself maybe? And His Apostles who left their wives and followed Him, I would think.
There is no evidence that the Apostles left their wives.
 
So the land would stay in the church not get passed on to children I belive.
 
Does anyone know when the tradition of priests not marrying started? I thought it started in the middle ages and had something to do with land rights. Any info would be greatly appreciated. šŸ™‚
It seems to be the case that clergy were never allowed to take a bride after ordination, even from the beginning. However it is impossible to prove a negative.

The issue of celibacy as a complete lifestyle did arise slowly over the centuries. I think it is unfair to treat it as a mere property-inheritance issue, although that could easily be part of the original concern.

In the east, the discipline of Eucharistic fast is much more stringent than in the west: typically the altar must be fasting (no other liturgies performed on it in the day) and the priest must be fasting. This fast for the priest includes refraining from sexual thoughts and acts, it is a serious exercise.

Of course, when the church has a married clergy this means that a liturgy cannot be performed every day unless there is more than one priest available (in small remote villages this is very unlikely). I think that this concept was current in the west as well, very early on, but it is extremely hard to tell after all these years.

In the east, liturgy every day is common in monasteries where the entire community is celibate. I think that the idea of a totally celibate clergy arose in the west when the ideal of a universal daily Mass took hold. This is possibly related to the discipline in the west that a priest must say a Mass every day, and may do so at home in private.

In the Byzantine east, there is no such thing as a private Mass. The liturgy is always a community affair, and if there is no congregation there is no Divine Liturgy.

So I think that there were a lot of issues involved in the change of discipline in the west.
 
look in Spain aroung 670, there should be some letters to and from the Pope and the Spainish Bishop on this matter

[Pelagius II]
*Promotion of clerical celibacy
Pelagius II was one of the popes who labored to promote the celibacy of the clergy. One of the issues in clerical celibacy relates to the attitude of the church, especially in the West, toward human sexuality. The now predominant doctrine of Original Sin promoted by Augustine of Hippo held that sexual union transmits sin and should be avoided except for the purpose or procreation. Even this ā€œparental duty,ā€ Augustine said, involves ā€œa passion that makes everyone ashamed.ā€ (City of God 14.18)

Another issue involved the belief that having children increased the temptation of a priest or bishop to amass wealth and power. Unlike the time before Christianity had become the favored religion of the Roman Empire, a clerical position could now involve considerable prestige and privilege. By imposing celibacy on the clergy, the popes and church councils intended to lessen the temptation to create clerical dynasties passed on from father to son or to amass wealth which could be handed down to one’s heirs. The purpose of priestly celibacy in this sense parallels that of more ancient rulers using eunuchs as local governors or military commanders.

Indeed, several previous popes had been the children of popes themselves, although they were born before their fathers had become bishops, priests or deacons. In the East, Emperor Justinian I (died 565) forbade ā€œany one to be ordained bishop who has children or grandchildren.ā€ Pelagius II issued such stringent regulations on this matter with regard to the subdeacons in the island of Sicily that his successor, Gregory I, himself also a promoter of priestly celibacy, thought them too strict, and modified them to some extent.*
newworldencyclopedia.org/entry/Pope_Pelagius_II
 
The Western Church started to mandate that priests be celibate sometime around the fourth century I think.

Priests have never been able to marry.

The Eastern Churches have always had a tradition of ordaining married men to the secular priesthood.

There is no evidence that the Apostles left their wives.
The mandate in the western Church was much later than the 4th century.

The Second Lateran Council (1139) made celibacy mandatory for future priests in the Western Church.

Excellent points about the Eastern tradition having continuously from the beginning ordaining married men, and that there’s no reason to think the Apostles left their wives.
 
In the east, liturgy every day is common in monasteries where the entire community is celibate. I think that the idea of a totally celibate clergy arose in the west when the ideal of a universal daily Mass took hold. This is possibly related to the discipline in the west that a priest must say a Mass every day, and may do so at home in private.
There is no discipline in the west that a priest must say a Mass every day.

Unless you are speaking of sometime long ago, which this is the first I have heard of it.
 
There is no discipline in the west that a priest must say a Mass every day.

Unless you are speaking of sometime long ago, which this is the first I have heard of it.
This may be a reference to Vatican II’s decree on the Ministry and Life of Priests, which says, in part:
In the mystery of the Eucharistic Sacrifice, in which priests fulfill their greatest task, the work of our redemption is being constantly carried on; and hence the daily celebration of Mass is strongly urged, since even if there cannot be present a number of the faithful, it is still an act of Christ and of the Church.
See para 13 vatican.va/archive/hist_councils/ii_vatican_council/documents/vat-ii_decree_19651207_presbyterorum-ordinis_en.html
 
There is no discipline in the west that a priest must say a Mass every day.

Unless you are speaking of sometime long ago, which this is the first I have heard of it.
I apologize.

I may have been misinformed. I first learned this a log time ago and I am not quite certain that it is accurate (or if it was once the rule, that it still is), I always just assumed so 😊

My old priest friend (he was a diocesan priest of the Archdiocese of Chicago, long retired) did Mass every single day, I helped him construct his altar at home.

If anyone knows for sure one way or another I would appreciate the clarification.
 
The mandate in the western Church was much later than the 4th century.
Different synods in the west put forth the rule at different times. The idea caught hold and spread.

I would assume that there were churchmen in the east which favored the idea of mandatory celibacy too, however that never became the norm in any synod for some reason.
The Second Lateran Council (1139) made celibacy mandatory for future priests in the Western Church.
I think that this was the capstone on all of the efforts in the western church to make it a universal rule.

I have not read this Council’s decrees. Did it specify only the western church for this, or did it in some way specifically exclude the eastern churches?

The reason I ask is that the Catholic communion was overwhelmingly western at the time, with only the Maronites of Lebanon and some Byzantines in Italy. I was wondering if an exception was made for them in the decree.
 
There is no evidence that the Apostles left their wives.

**St. Peter did say to Jesus, ā€œBehold, we have left ALL and followed you,ā€ and Jesus replied with the promise of blessings of those who leave, among other things, wives or children for His sake.

So, this does seem to suggest that St. Peter left his wife, at least for a while, though one of the Pauline Epistles refers to ā€œCephasā€ carrying around his wife on his journeys.**
 
Priests cannot be married EVER, there has never been a time when priests could get married, but there are times when married men may be priests and some married men are priests today.
Our parish just recently got a priest who is married, with 3 grown children. He has been such a blessing to us! He converted from Lutheranism, got special dispensation from Rome, had his WHOLE familiy interviewed, and he was very recently ordained. It’s been great, albeit a little strange šŸ˜‰
 
Most of the Eastern Churches were not in union during 2nd Lateran.

The Maronites and Italo-Albanians were. The rest were not, or at least not visibly.

When most of the Byzantine churches who came into union, they were specifically excluded from having to adopt celibate-only priesthoods.

Note also that Roman priests were expected to practice continence within marriage since the 4th century; often they didn’t even live with their wives, tho’ most had been married before ordination. Due to difficulties keeping to it, celibacy was encouraged strongly since the 8th, and many urban priests were. Priests in other areas of the west were encouraged, but it varied.
 
Hi Aramis,
Most of the Eastern Churches were not in union during 2nd Lateran.

The Maronites and Italo-Albanians were. The rest were not, or at least not visibly.
Perhaps you can tell us… were the Italian and Maronite eastern particular churches specifically exempted from this declaration at Lateran II?

Thanks
 
Hi Aramis, Perhaps you can tell us… were the Italian and Maronite eastern particular churches specifically exempted from this declaration at Lateran II?

Thanks
Not explicitly in what survives.

See
ewtn.com/library/COUNCILS/LATERAN2.HTM
for the canons; the acts don’t survive.

The Maronites were not quite in visible communion, either; 1182 for that, and 1139 for 2nd Lateran.
 
I’m just going with the ā€œCome Follow Meā€ message. You can read anything you want into that.
The ā€œCome Follow Meā€ message does not necessarily mean that one leaves family and spouses behind.

It is a fact that the Church has always ordained married men to the priesthood.

The Latin Church created a discipline of not doing so but has, on occasion, dispensed from this discipline.

Read anything you want into that.
 
Does anyone know when the tradition of priests not marrying started? I thought it started in the middle ages and had something to do with land rights. Any info would be greatly appreciated. šŸ™‚
It started with Christ and was practiced by the Apostles. "For I would that all men were even as myself: but every one hath his proper gift from God; one after this manner. and another after that. But I say to the unmarried. and to the widow: it is good for them if they so continue, even as i ā€œā€“1 Cor 7:7-8. Christ and the Apostles were celibate as st paul clearly shows he was by asking unmarried and widows to follow his example by also being celibate. The primary reason why this is asked is because a member of the clergy must be focused on his flock and the saving of souls. When your married you must be focused on your wife which can lead to distraction or a confilct in obligations. For instance if your child is sick and needs to go to the hospital but your parishoner is dying and needs last rights whom should you help? If you were not married all of your focus can be turned to your priestly duties. Saint paul explains this also: " But i would have you to be without solicitude. he that is without a wife is solicitous for the things that belong to the Lord, how he may please God. But he that is with a wife is solicitous for the things of the world, how he may please his wife: and he is divided. And the unmarried woman and the virgin thinketh on the things of the Lord, that she may be holy both in body and in spirit. But she that is married thinketh on the things of the world, how she may please her husband.ā€ā€”1 Cor 7:32-34.

Priestly celibacy is obligatory in the Western rite and has been since 440-461. The first recorded law enforcing celibacy was not passed until about the year 300 by the Council of Elvira in Spain. Yet this does not mean it was not practiced earlier as we can see by the life of Christ, & Apostles
 
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