When Jesus was baptized, who heard the Father's voice?

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irishcolleen45

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Did people besides Jesus and John hear the Father’s words or did they only hear thunder?
 
I would think so. In John’s Gospel when the Lord speaks about Glorifying Jesus, the author notes taht some were unsure of what was said. There is no mention of that in either of the synoptics.
 
If I recall my Scriptures correctly, in Mark, the voice is addressing Jesus, “You are my beloved Son; with you I am well pleased,” and the course of the Gospel indicates that only Jesus hears it or sees the Spirit descending. It’s not until the Transfiguration, after Peter has confessed, that the voice lets others in on the secret.

Matthew, which has John object to Jesus coming to him until Jesus reassures him, has it more as an open declaration: “This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased.”

Luke follows Mark’s form, but does not note that only Jesus heard or saw it happen. Luke also avoids mentioning who exactly baptized Jesus, although the implication is that John did it.

In John, there is no actual mention of Jesus being baptized, just John’s witness that “I saw the Spirit come down like a dove from the sky and remain upon him."

The response of the people that hear God’s word from heaven as thunder is from later in John somewhere. Not too long before the Final week, I believe. Maybe Chapter 10 or 12?

So, it’s hard to tell who exactly heard the voice at the baptism. I’d say consensus is that the bystanders (especially John) heard, but the earliest and most straight-forward version has only Jesus hearing. On the other hand, if that was true, then who would have known it to record it?
 
My thoughts are, “why would God speak to Jesus?” He was in complete communion with Jesus at all times, hence speech wasn’t necessary.

The scene in itself is a Sign. The Heavens were rent (literally “torn open”), and a dove descended onto Jesus. But the Sign is incomplete and unrecognizable until God the Father fills in the blanks — “This is My Beloved Son…”.

One last thought. If God the Father was talking to Jesus, and only Jesus, wouldn’t He say, “YOU are My Beloved Son…”?
 
NotWorthy said:
My thoughts are, “why would God speak to Jesus?” He was in complete communion with Jesus at all times, hence speech wasn’t necessary.

The scene in itself is a Sign. The Heavens were rent (literally “torn open”), and a dove descended onto Jesus. But the Sign is incomplete and unrecognizable until God the Father fills in the blanks — “This is My Beloved Son…”.

One last thought. If God the Father was talking to Jesus, and only Jesus, wouldn’t He say, “YOU are My Beloved Son…”?
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Could God the Father be speaking just to John the Baptist?

With such an event occuring (God the Father speaking to many), why did some people doubt who Jesus is?
 
irishcolleen45 said:
Could God the Father be speaking just to John the Baptist?

With such an event occuring (God the Father speaking to many), why did some people doubt who Jesus is?
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Why did some people doubt? They saw miracles upon miracles and they still doubted!

But to your point, He could have been talking to just John the Baptist… I’ve never thought of that. But then, why talk to just John?
 
NotWorthy said:
Why did some people doubt? They saw miracles upon miracles and they still doubted!

But to your point, He could have been talking to just John the Baptist… I’ve never thought of that. But then, why talk to just John?
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John later says “I would not have known him, except that the one who sent me to baptize with water told me, 'The man on whom you see the Spirit come down and remain is he who will baptize with the Holy Spirit.”

So it is very possible that John was given the vision that he might point others to Christ. He was the one who pointed to Jesus and sent disciples his way. I could see it as a personal revelation that John could help spread the message.
 
Isn’t the rendering of the passage, *17 And a voice came from the heavens, saying, "This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased." *If “a voice came from the heavens”, doesn’t this imply that “the voice” was for everyone? Wouldn’t it say, “and John heard a voice from the heavens…” if the voice was meant for John alone.
 
NotWorthy said:
Isn’t the rendering of the passage, 17 And a voice came from the heavens, saying, "This is my beloved Son, with whom I am well pleased." If “a voice came from the heavens”, doesn’t this imply that “the voice” was for everyone? Wouldn’t it say, “and John heard a voice from the heavens…” if the voice was meant for John alone.
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I’m not sure. To be “a voice came from the heavens” does not imply who heard it, but the authority of the voice itself.
 
bmullins said:
I’m not sure. To be “a voice came from the heavens” does not imply who heard it, but the authority of the voice itself.
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OK, but I would think if a voice said something in a crowd for only one person to hear, that it would be noted. Otherwise, the said voice could be heard by anyone within hearing. Just my 2 cents.
 
NotWorthy said:
My thoughts are, “why would God speak to Jesus?” He was in complete communion with Jesus at all times, hence speech wasn’t necessary.

The scene in itself is a Sign. The Heavens were rent (literally “torn open”), and a dove descended onto Jesus. But the Sign is incomplete and unrecognizable until God the Father fills in the blanks — “This is My Beloved Son…”.

One last thought. If God the Father was talking to Jesus, and only Jesus, wouldn’t He say, “YOU are My Beloved Son…”?
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I’m just going by what the Gospels say.

And, by the way, Mark does have the voice say, “You are my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.” It’s only in Matthew that the voice says, “This is my beloved Son. . . .”

And in John there is no mention of the voice at all.
 
bmonk said:
I’m just going by what the Gospels say.

And, by the way, Mark does have the voice say, “You are my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.” It’s only in Matthew that the voice says, “This is my beloved Son. . . .”

And in John there is no mention of the voice at all.
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I’m just going by what the Gospels says, as well.

And in all three of the synoptics, it says, “And a voice came from the heavens…”.
 
NotWorthy said:
I’m just going by what the Gospels says, as well.

And in all three of the synoptics, it says, “And a voice came from the heavens…”.
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You say that the voice from the heavens is the key factor, and that if it were only addressing Jesus that would be noted. OK.

In Luke and Matthew, the “Messianic Secret” is not so visible–it seems mostly a carry-over from Mark.

However, much of the point in Mark is that nobody really knows who Jesus is except he himself–he shushes the demons who try to reveal him prematurely. It’s only when Simon confesses Jesus as the Christ that Jesus begins to teach the next step: that he MUST suffer and die and be raised. But that’s also where we no longer get the secrecy.

So, to preempt the whole secret process by broadcasting who Jesus is from before the first moment of his ministry–well, what’s the point if others know who Jesus is? And why have the voice repeat it at the Transfiguration, but now openly to the believing community, if they already knew?

That’s why I think Mark envisions a private revelation at the baptism–with only Jesus aware of the voice.
 
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