P
pandacordova
Guest
I am in the process of becoming Catholic and am just learning about some to the doctines of Mary and have a question about her Imaculate Conception and the birth of Jesus.
I started wondering about this while I was praying the Joyful Mysteries today. If Mary was concieved without original sin does that mean that when she gave birth to Jesus that she did so without pain? Wasn’t that part of the punishment of Eve and her decendents who have fallen from grace? So would Mary having been imaculately conceived herself and declared full of grace been spared that?
I am just trying to think these new concepts through so that I can accuately pass them on to my family when they ask.
I started wondering about this while I was praying the Joyful Mysteries today. If Mary was concieved without original sin does that mean that when she gave birth to Jesus that she did so without pain? Wasn’t that part of the punishment of Eve and her decendents who have fallen from grace? So would Mary having been imaculately conceived herself and declared full of grace been spared that?
I am just trying to think these new concepts through so that I can accuately pass them on to my family when they ask.