E
ericc
Guest
But is that God-given authority? Does it mean as long as the majority practices it, it is authorized? Or is that self-given authority? If it is self-given, then it is no better than churches who created their own authority.That’s why the Pharisees were able to found Rabbinic Judaism - their Judaism was not centered so much on the priests and sacrificial rituals in the Temple but on the laity and teaching. That’s what enabled them to get over the Temple’s destruction.
The RCC has apostolic succession. Wouldn’t Judaism require succession/edict from a Aaronic/Levite priesthood for it to be valid?
The Men of the Great Assembly around 410 BCE to 310 BCE have supposedly determined the Jewish Bible. However, I have not found documentation that the canon is closed and finalised by them. Perhaps forumers with such knowledge can share their data?
Finally, I still haven’t sort out the implications of the differences between the Sadducees and Pharisees on what accounts for canonical books. The Sadducees subscribing only to the first 5 books of OT as canonical. My question is who has authority? Even during the time of Jesus, there is still disagreement between the 2 factions. Hence, how can the OT cannon be considered closed then and acceptable to all parties? And if it is not closed, then proclamations of closed cannon is moot because there were no authorised Jewish councils tasked to do that job. All you have is some reputable rabbis saying it is so.