When will a son of the Son be born?

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Needy1

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If the Son has the Father, then a son of the Son will be born. If not, why the Father has the Son? When will it happen?
 
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Fauken said:
The Son is not the literal son of the Father.
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This is a first time I’ve heard this claim. How did you know that?

If so, why the Son, the Son? Why would people call the Son the Son? Where this idea came from?
 
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In Christianity, the Son of the Father is the Alpha and the Omega - the beginning and the end.

That answers your question.
 
Needy1 said:
If so, why the Son, the Son? Why would people call the Son the Son? Where this idea came from?
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Son is used to denote a relationship and it is different from how things happen on earth.
 
I think what you’re really asking about is the nature of the Trinity. Well, Catholics, your turn…
 
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Well, Trinity means one God in Three Persons. They are all equally God but are not exactly the same as each other in other ways.

The Father was not born in Bethlehem nor died on Calvary, for example. Nor was it the Father who came to the Apostles at Pentecost…

Jesus did not and does not need to beget a son to be God. What makes you think.he does?
 
I think the Son would give birth to his sons, like what his father did according to Christianity.

Usually, sons earn his children like his dad. It’s commonly fact. So why not.
 
Needy1 said:
I think the Son would give birth to his sons, like what his father did according to Christianity.

Usually, sons earn his children like his dad. It’s commonly fact. So why not.
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First of all, men don’t give birth.
Second of all, children aren’t earned.
 
Remember that Jesus was “conceived of the Holy Spirit” at the Annunciation.

But he calls God the Father “Father.”

But at the same time, the Second Person of the Trinity preexisted the Incarnation.
 
0Scarlett_nidiyilii said:
First of all, men don’t give birth.
Second of all, children aren’t earned.
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Right. Jesus is the Son of the Father not through parturition (that is, ‘childbirth’), but through generation.

I think ‘earned’ is a bad translation. The OP isn’t a native speaker of English. I think he’s trying to say ‘get’ rather than ‘earn’, in an attempt to assert that the way by which a son is born to his father is the way that this same son has children of his own.

So, I’m guessing, he’s asking whether the Son of God will have children in the same way that the Father did.

(The answer is ‘no’, of course.)
 
Gorgias said:
So, I’m guessing, he’s asking whether the Son of God will have children in the same way that the Father did.
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Yes.
Gorgias said:
(The answer is ‘no’, of course.)
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Why?
According to John 5:19
Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.
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Needy1 said:
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Gorgias:
So, I’m guessing, he’s asking whether the Son of God will have children in the same way that the Father did.
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Why?
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There are a couple different ways to discuss that question, but they all lead to the same answer…

First off, we have to ask about the way in which you’re asking the question. Jesus is fully human and fully divine, and, although you can’t “separate” him into a human part and a divine part, we’d have to ask about the type of question you’re asking. Are you asking whether Jesus might have children in a human way (i.e., through intercourse and through a mother giving birth) or in a divine way?

If “in a human way”, we’d answer “no” because that would mean that Jesus – as God – would have human children through divine creation and all of us would be his children, but He’d also have human children, and almost all of us wouldn’t share in that relationship. In other words, it would make some people “special” and the rest of us “not His children.” That would be pretty unfair, wouldn’t you say? So, we say that the idea of Jesus having human children isn’t feasible.

What about “in the divine way”, though? As you point out, in the Gospel of John, Jesus mentions that “the Father and I are one”. So, if He and God the Father are one, what would it mean to suggest that the Son might have children separately from the Father? It just doesn’t make sense – He’s already God, and so He participates in all the Father does, so there’s no way in which the Son (as a divine being) could act in isolation from the Father. In other words: no divine children.

Does that help?
 
The Son isn’t a different being than the Father.

Try to think of it this way, there is a procession in God of God knowing himself and being known by himself. The two are relationally distinct even if it’s the same being in both. You’re asking can God know himself again. But think about it: this procession is identical to the former; it’s not a new relation. So there can only be one procession in God related to an intelligible act of the intellect in having himself as the object of his knowledge.
 
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