H
Hitetlen
Guest
That is a good question. The word “evil” is used in its most generic meaning: "anything that causes harm, anything that deviates from perfection (as I understand this term!). So “evil” is an Earthquake that causes millions to die, or a sociopath who goes on a shooting rampage.Firstly, as an atheist: what is your definition of ‘evil’? Likewise ‘good’?
If you mean that the existence of free will is the cause of the evil in the world (or rather the improper exercise of free will) then indeed I reject that concept. Here is the reason:Obviously you reject the ‘Free Will’ Theodicy. Why?
Our freedom to “desire” something is really only limited by our imagination. Whatever we can think of, we can “wish” to do. However, there are physical restraints, which prevent us from doing certain things. Therefore our “free will” is already limited, if by nothing else, then our ability to imagine something. And of course our actions are limited by our physical capabilities.
Now these limitations are not considered “essential” as far as “free will” is concerned. We have free will, even if we are unable to fly just by flapping our arms. Therefore our free will would not be curtailed, if we could imagine murder (for example) but we had no desire (or capability) to commit one (I can speak for myself, I can imagine to torture someone, but would not wish to engage in such a practice).
Therefore, if no human would have the desire to commit anything we consider “evil”, even though they all would be able to imagine it, the concept of free will would be intact, but “human-caused-evil” would not exist in the world.
And of course the so-called natural “evils” (meteor strikes, tsunamis, Earthquakes, diseases, etc.) cannot be blamed on human free will at all.
Let me reiterate it: our free will is already not absolute. A miniscule further limitation would not invalidate it.