Where do protestants get "Personal Lord and Savior?" What is the origin of this phrase?

[moondweller]

but God is attached to the Church
the Church is the Mystical Body of Christ

the two misconceptions of many Evangelicals is that the Church is merely an organization with a building and officers leading this organization. the True Church is much more than that. as shown in the Bible, Christ fully intends to marry His Church, as His Bride. this is symbolic of a man and wife becoming one through matrimony, Christ is one with His Church in the same way

“Protestants” do recognize “the church” which transcends the “churches.” Churches (plural) are local assemblies with appointed elders/bishops/overseers and deacons. Scripture recognizes “churches” (Acts 15:41; 16:5, 1 Cor. 11:16; etc.). There were churches of Asia (1 Cor. 16:19), churches of Macedonia (2 Cor. 8:1), churches of Galatia (Gal. 1:2). Paul himself wrote to the church at Rome (one of many churches):Rom 16:16 "All the churches of Christ greet you."These local assemblies have within them believers and unbelievers. Many which call themselves churches today are made up completely of unbelievers.

But the true church which Christ has been building since Pentecost (Matt. 16:18), through the Holy Spirit, while sharing His Father’s throne in Heaven functioning there not as King but as the believer’s High Priest (Heb. 1:25), is made up of ONLY true believers who have been redeemed (purchased) by His blood through personal faith in Him. Christ’s church is always stated in the singular because corporately its members make up the body of Christ which is “the church,” over which He is its head (Eph. 1:22-23; Col. 1:18). And “…the Lord knows those who are His” (2 Tim. 2:19). They’re His because He purchased each and every one of them (Rev. 5:9-10).

 

[CWBetts]

You see? Catholicism has no concept of saved (a completed Divine act) through personal faith in the Person and work of Christ. Hence, a Catholic cannot comprehend the concept of a truly personal salvation or Savior. If you’re “being saved” then you’re not “saved.” If you “will be saved,” then you’re not “being saved,” nor have you ever been “saved.” But rather it remains a future hope based on your present performance.I already did with Acts 16:31. However:Eph 2:8-9 "For by grace you have been saved through faith; and that not of yourselves, the gift of God; not as a result of works, so that no one may boast."

There is no indication in the Scriptures of a finished divine act, unless you ignore vast passages that show that there is reponsibilty. Eph, 2:8-9 does not work , because if you accept this as being faith alone, then there is a contradiction with James 2.

 

[moondweller]

There is no indication in the Scriptures of a finished divine act, unless you ignore vast passages that show that there is reponsibilty. Eph, 2:8-9 does not work , because if you accept this as being faith alone, then there is a contradiction with James 2.

You take James out of context. What James is talking about is a mere “said” faith. One who simply says he has faith but nothing demonstrates it. He asks, “can that faith save him” (2:14)?" James doesn’t actually present the false notion that works justify a man before God, but that those whom God has justified by faith, like Abraham, go on to grow in faith and demonstrate their Divine justification in works (see Eph. 2:10). Even James must quote Gen. 15:6:Gen 15:6 "Then he (Abraham) believed in the LORD; and He (the Lord) reckoned it (his faith) to him as righteousness."He must quote Gen. 15:6 because it’s the one and ONLY place stated where the Lord justified Abraham - based strictly on faith and prior to any works recognized (Isaac wasn’t offered until 20 some years later). Was Abraham justified “when” he was willing to offer up Isaac. Yes, in fact some twenty years earlier. He was not justified again “by” his willingness to offer up Isaac.Rom 4:1-6 "What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh, has found? For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. For what does the Scripture say? “ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND IT WAS CREDITED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS.” Now to the one who works, his wage is not credited as a favor, but as what is due. But to the one who does not work, but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is credited as righteousness, just as David also speaks of the blessing on the man to whom God credits righteousness apart from works:"Abraham lived 430 prior to the Law; David lived under the Law. BOTH were justified by God by faith alone, apart from works.

 

[brb3]

Protestants get it from the writings of St. John … in regards to the receipt of the H.S., the Counselor, the Paraclete. And, Christ taught that some would claim association with him at the judgment … yet they would be rejected for having never been known by Christ [as His personal son/daughter].

Therefore, some Protestants believe it essential one BOND to Christ in a personal way. Not that they can make it happen … but, that they can petition Christ [thru confession, prayer, and repentance … the Sinner’s Prayer] to adopt them as his son/daughter. It’s termed ‘Rebirth or Baptism in the H.S.’.

The Charismatic Catholics also view Baptism in H.S. in similar terms, whereby their relationship to Christ becomes personal [experiential], with receipt of H.S. which transforms their lives.

If you listen to Father Corapi carefully, he too acknowledges the Sinner’s Prayer is highly efficacious/salvific.

 

[CWBetts]

You take James out of context. What James is talking about is a mere “said” faith. One who simply says he has faith but nothing demonstrates it. He asks, “can that faith save him” (2:14)?" James doesn’t actually present the false notion that works justify a man before God, but that those whom God has justified by faith, like Abraham, go on to grow in faith and demonstrate their Divine justification in works (see Eph. 2:10). Even James must quote Gen. 15:6:Gen 15:6 "Then he (Abraham) believed in the LORD; and He (the Lord) reckoned it (his faith) to him as righteousness."He must quote Gen. 15:6 because it’s the one and ONLY place stated where the Lord justified Abraham - based strictly on faith and prior to any works recognized (Isaac wasn’t offered until 20 some years later). Was Abraham justified “when” he was willing to offer up Isaac. Yes, in fact some twenty years earlier. He was not justified again “by” his willingness to offer up Isaac.Rom 4:1-6 "What then shall we say that Abraham, our forefather according to the flesh, has found? For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God. For what does the Scripture say? “ABRAHAM BELIEVED GOD, AND IT WAS CREDITED TO HIM AS RIGHTEOUSNESS.” Now to the one who works, his wage is not credited as a favor, but as what is due. But to the one who does not work, but believes in Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is credited as righteousness, just as David also speaks of the blessing on the man to whom God credits righteousness apart from works:"Abraham lived 430 prior to the Law; David lived under the Law. BOTH were justified by God by faith alone, apart from works.

Out of context is the specialty of faith alone. There is not enough space to refute it here. Read my blog (“debunking the myths”–its in my signature) and you will find a complete rebuttal of the “faith alone” heresy.

 

[brb3]

Behold I stand at the door and knock, if you open that door, I will come in and fellowship with you. Somewhere in the book of Revelation.

Rev. 3:20 Again, St. John quoting Christ … to the Laodicean church.

Recall, they were neither hot nor cold for Christ, their faith manifested indifference. Christ is telling them belief/discipleship must be PERSONAL — a living faith, to be salvific.

 

[system]

That was a most helpful interpretation. Thank you for giving me this to work with.